Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi lớp 9 môn Tiếng Anh trường THCS Cao Dương, Thanh Oai năm 2015 - 2016

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Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi lớp 9 môn Tiếng Anh

Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi lớp 9 môn Tiếng Anh trường THCS Cao Dương, Thanh Oai năm 2015 - 2016 gồm các phần: Nghe, Ngữ âm, Từ vựng và Ngữ pháp, Đọc, Viết cùng đáp án đi kèm. Đề thi được làm trong thời gian 150 phút, mời các bạn tham khảo.

Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi tiếng Anh lớp 9 cấp huyện phòng GD - ĐT Tĩnh Gia năm học 2014 – 2015

Đề thi HSG môn tiếng Anh lớp 9 cấp huyện phòng GD-ĐT Quỳnh Lưu năm học 2010 - 2011

Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9 trường THCS Thanh Thùy, Thanh Oai năm 2015 - 2016

PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

THANH OAI

TRƯỜNG THCS CAO DƯƠNG

ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Năm học: 2015 – 2016

Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)

Listen to the tape and fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word: (0.215=3.0pts)

DIFERENCES

Are you tall or short? Are you big or small?

People come in many different (1)........................... and sizes.
(2)........................... people wear size small (3)..........................., other people wear size (4)........................... clothes. There are people who wear large size clothes, some people (5)........................... wear extra large clothes.

Some people are (6)..........................., some people are fat, some people are in (7)............................

There are people (8)........................... short hair, other people have long hair, some people have no hair at all. No two people are exactly (9)............................

Some people have long legs - I have short legs. I don't walk as fast as a (10)........................... with long (11)..........................., I am not a tall person. In fact, I am quite short.

My feet are a size (12)..........................., my mother has size five (13) ..........................., my father has size twelve feet.
We are all (14)........................... sizes but is not a bad thing.

It is a good thing that we are all (15)............................

PART TWO: PHONETICS (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others by circling A, B, C or D (0,2x5=1.0 pt)

1. A. nature        B. natural        C. volcano        D. waste

2. A. conserve      B. preserve       C. reserve        D. exhaust

3. A. honour        B. hero          C. held           D. happy

4. A. champion      B. character      C. match         D. cheerful

5. A. spread         B. disease       C. health         D. pleasure

II. Choose the word in each group which has the main stress on a different syllable from the others (0,2x5=1.0 pt)

1/ A. accident        B. indicator       C. magnificent    D. longitude

2/ A. despite         B. dislike         C. despair       D. distance

3/ A. chemistry       B. physics        C. geography    D. literature

4/ A. injury          B. intend         C. income       D. interest

5/ A. spontaneous    B. secondary      C. honesty       D. monarchy

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (6.5 pts)

I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences. (0.1x15=1,5 pts)

1. His parents died when he was very young so he was ...........................by an aunt.

A. grown up         B. taken care      C. taken after    D. brought up

2. It was very...........................of you to lend us your car for the whole week.

A. generous         B. ambitious      C. modest       D. thoughtless

3. I'm going to take a couple of days.......................next month to help my sister move house.

A. over             B. off            C. out           D. up

4. I'm surprising the performance went so well after only three...........................

A. auditions         B. applauses      C. rehearsals     D. directions

5. If he ...........................more slowly, he would have been able to stop.

A. had been driving   B. has driven      C. drove        D. didn't drive

6. ...........................I'm eating less than usual, I still seem to be gaining weight.

A. Because          B. If             C. Unless       D. Although

7. Susan...........................as a nurse for three years before her marriage.

A. worked           B. is working      C. has worked    D. has been working

8. The police questioned me at some length and I didn't enjoy...........................

A. to question                        B. questioning
C. being questioned                   D. to be questioned

9. You need to talk to a person..........................you can trust. You will feel better if you do.

A. whose            B. which         C. whom        D. Ø

10. We shall have to...........................the meeting until next weekend, I'm afraid.

A. reorganize         B. forward        C. replace       D. postpone

11. The air is not as pure as it ........................

A. used to be                         B. is used to be
C. is used to being                    D. was used to be

12. The politician ........................to admit that he had done anything wrong.

A. accepted          B. denied         C. explained     D. refused

13. I wanted some tea but there was........................left in the pot.

A. none              B. nothing        C. any          D. no

14. Why don't you buy bananas when they are much........................apples?

A. expensive than                     B. not expensive than
C. less expensive than                  D. lesser expensive than

15. He has arrived, but he talks as if he........................all about that.

A. know              B. knows         C. known       D. knew

II. Fill each gap of the following sentences with a suitable preposition. (0.1x10=1.0 pt)

1. My younger brhother's birthday is ....................... January 24.

2. My closed friend, Linh, rented a house next door ....................... mine.

3. Last night I spoke to my parents ....................... my hobby.

4. Lan's school is preparing ....................... the coming May Day.

5. The teacher has divided their class ....................... four small groups.

6. Environmentalists are concerned ....................... the use of dynamite to catch fish.

7. Every body was surprised ....................... the news

8. These pictures remind me ....................... my childhood.

9. That old man doesn't take much exercise apart ....................... walking.

10. Some designers have modernized the Ao dai ....................... printing lines of poetry on it.

(Còn tiếp)

Đáp án đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi lớp 9 môn Tiếng Anh

PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

THANH OAI

TRƯỜNG THCS CAO DƯƠNG

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI 9

Môn: Tiếng Anh

Năm học: 2015 – 2016

PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)

Listen to the tape and fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word: (0.215=3.0pts)

1. shapes      2. Some       3. clothes      4. medium      5. even

6. thin        7. between     8. with        9. alike        10. person

11. legs       12. seven      13. feet       14. different     15. unique

PART TWO: PHONETICS (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the word in each group which has the underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others (0,2x5=1.0 pt)

1. B. natural        2. A. conserve         3. A. honour

4. B. character      5. B. disease

II. Choose the word in each group which has the main stress on a different syllable from the others (0.25=1.0 pt):

1/ C. magnificent

2/ D. distance

3/ C. geography

4/ B. intend

5/ A. spontaneous

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (6.5 pts)

I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences. (0.115=1.5 pts)

1 - D      2 - A      3 - C      4 - D      5 - A

11 - A     12 - D     13 - B     14 - C     15 - D

II. Fill each gap of the following sentences with a suitable preposition. (0.1x10=1.0 pt)

1. on      2. to      3. about   4. for      5. into

6. about    7. at / by   8. of      9. from     10. by

III. Use the words given in brackets to form a word that fits in the space. (0.2x10=2.0 pts)

1. arguments    2. variety       3. dealth      4. belief        5. heavily

6. foreigners     7. exceptional   8. permission   9. participants   10. confirmation

IV. Complete the following sentences with the correct form of the phrasal verbs given in the brackets. (0.2 x 10 = 2.0 pts)

1. 1. hit         2. were having   3. has never been established

4. be converted   5. are provided   6. repairing

7. come         8. Have...seen   9. has been mentioned

10. showing

PART FOUR: READING (4.0 pts)

I. Circle best option A, B, C or D to complete the following passage. (0.1x10=1.0 pt)

1. D. where      2. B. between     3. C. per      4. A. services    5. A. least

6. B. since       7. C. increasingly  8. D. prevent   9. A. and       10. A. protects

II. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word to complete the passage. (0.2x10=2.0 pts)

1. to            2. so            3. live        4. pollute        5. have

6. result         7. grow          8. there       9. disappearing  10. problem

III. Circle best option A, B, C or D to answer following questions: (0.2x5=1.0 pt)

1. D. A trip to France

2. B. Freddy is an indoor person, and Jill is an outdoor person.

3. D. The weather is hot and the museums have air conditioning.

4. C. Two weeks

5. A. because he enjoys the smell of French coffee.

PART FIVE: WRITING (4.5)

I. Finish the second sentence in such a way that is similar to the original one. (1.0 pt)

1. If I were free today, I could go on a picnic with you.

2. He was said to be the best student in his group.

3. Mr. Maile regretted not having said goodbye to his wife at the airport.

4. Most people's lives are influenced by weather conditions.

5. Lan never used to be late until she started going out with Nam.

6. You can't have locked the door. Here's the key.

II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, using the word given in brackets. Do not change the words in any way. (0.2x5=1.0 pt)

1. He left the letter on the table so that I was sure seeing it when I came in.

2. The book consists of four parts, one of which has been translated into English.

3. The doctor advised me not to get up until I felt better.

4. It is nearly thirty years since John last went back to his native village.

5. The policeman whose name was Williamson, lived next door.

III. In about 200 words write about your mother - the one you love most of all: (2.5 pts)

The essay must have at least three ideas below.

1. Her appearance, age...

2. Her personality, job(s)...

3. The reasons why you love or admire her.

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