Đề thi thử vào lớp 6 môn tiếng Anh năm 2023 số 6

Đề thi tiếng Anh tuyển sinh lớp 6 2023 có đáp án

Đề khảo sát năng lực môn tiếng Anh vào lớp 6 năm 2023 có đáp án trên đây nằm trong bộ đề thi tiếng Anh vào lớp 6 mới nhất do VnDoc.com sưu tầm và đăng tải. Đề thi tiếng Anh lớp 5 lên lớp 6 có đáp án được biên tập bám sát nội dung SGK tiếng Anh lớp 5 chương trình mới giúp các em học sinh ôn tập kiến thức Từ vựng - Ngữ pháp tiếng Anh trọng tâm lớp 5 hiệu quả.

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Tham khảo thêm: Bộ 100 đề thi tiếng Anh vào lớp 6 năm 2023

I. Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others by circling A, B, C, or D.

1. A. together B. guess C. regular D. teenager

2. A. education B. question C. collection D. celebration

3. A. family B. mechanic C. animal D. machine

II. Find which word does not belong to each group.

4. A. unusual B. favorite C. popular D. common

5. A. during B. running C. cycling D. skiing

III. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes the sentence.

6. If he eats all that food, he eats _____________.

A. too much B. too many C. quite much D. quite many

7. I have enough food in the house, so I needn’t _____________ to the shop tomorrow.

A. to go B. go C. going D. will go

8. My new shoes don’t _____________ me very well. They are too big.

A. suit B. match C. agree D. fit

9. The girl decided to learn ____________ a sewing machine.

A. what to use B. which to use C. how to use D. to use

10. They prefer reading _____________ watching TV.

A. than B. more than C. much than D. to

11. _____________ have dinner at my house? - Yes, I’d love to.

A. Would you like to B. Do you like

C. What about D. why don’t

12. This river is very _____________ for the swimmers.

A. danger B. dangerous C. dangerously D. in danger

13. ‘Excuse me, where is the post office? ‘_____________’

Let me see C. Twenty minutes walk

About two hundred meters D. Keep straight on for one miles

14. ‘Why don’t we have a look round the campus? ‘_____________’

Yes, thanks B. It’s my pleasure C. Yes, why not D. Do we

15. Last Sunday we _____________ to the movie theater.

A. went B. go C. are going D. will go

IV. Supply the correct form of the words in CAPITAL letters.

16. The teacher ____________________the students to study harder. (COURAGE)

17. The students of class 7A enjoy ___________activities after school hours. (DIFFER)

18. Some students are following the _____________to the video room. (LIBRARY)

19. The post arrives _________________at eight in the morning. (REGULAR)

20. Do your classes start ____________________________ or later? (EARLY)

V. Put the verbs in the brackets into correct tense or form:

21. She may be late if she (not hurry) ________________.

22. If you are kind to me, I (be) ________________good to you.

23. If he (give) ________________ up smoking, as his doctor orders, he will be soon well again.

24. You (not pass) ________________ your driving test unless you drive more carefully.

25. He’ll be ill if he (not stop) ________________ worrying so much.

VI. In each line of the passage, there is a mistake. Find and correct it.

26. He drinks a lot of mineral waters in a day.

27. We shouldn’t run or walk careless around the pool edge.

28. Hoa told me that her aunt cutted her hair yesterday.

29. There are a large, modern bathroom and a kitchen in the apartment.

30. Many people think that teachers give students too many homework.

VII. Read and circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the passage.

I don’t usually eat breakfast. I only have (31) ________ of coffee. I don’t eat (32)________ until about eleven o’clock. Then I have a biscuit and a glass of (33) ________.For lunch I usually have a salad. That’s (34) ________ about two o’clock. I have(35)________at half past six in the afternoon. I’m a vegetarian, so I don’t eat (36) _________or fish. I eat cheese and eggs and things like that. I have a glass of water or fruit (37)_________ with my meal. At the weekend I go to a (38) _________ in the evening. You can (39) _________ vegetarian meals in a (40) _________ restaurants now.

31. A. a packet B. a cup C. a can D. a bar

32. A. any B. some C. anything D. something

33. A. peas B. rice C. chocolate D. milk

34. A. at B. on C. in D. of

35. A. breakfast B. lunch C. dinner D. supper

36. A. meat B. rice C. vegetables D. noodles

37. A. water B. soda C. juice D. lemonade

38. A. store B. restaurant C. shop D. apartment

39. A. get B. getting C. to get D. gets

40. A. many B. much C. dozen D. lot of

VIII. Make question for underlined part.

41. My daughters do aerobics every morning

_________________________________________________________________

42. This bar of soap is 8000 dong.

_________________________________________________________________

43. Lan is going to live in China.

_________________________________________________________________

44. Minh goes swimming with his friends

_________________________________________________________________

45. He has math on Monday and Thursday.

______________________________________________________________________

IX. Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before.

46. Mr. Cuong plays table tennis well.

-> Mr Cuong is ______________________________________________

47. I do my homework in two hours.

-> It takes ___________________________________________________

48. How wide is the West Lake?

-> What is __________________________________________________?

49. Unless he takes these pills, he won’t be better.

-> If _______________________________________________________

50. I have never been to Nha Trang before.

-> It is the first _____________________________________

ĐÁP ÁN

I. Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others by circling A, B, C, or D.

1. D; 2. B; 3. D;

II. Find which word does not belong to each group. 

4. A; 5. A;

III. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes the sentence.

6. A; 7. B; 8. D; 9. C; 10. D;

11. A; 12. B; 13. D; 14. C; 15. A;

IV. Supply the correct form of the words in CAPITAL letters.

16. The teacher ________encourages________ the students to study harder. (COURAGE)

17. The students of class 7A enjoy ____different_____ activities after school hours. (DIFFER)

18. Some students are following the ________librarian_____ to the video room. (LIBRARY)

19. The post arrives __________regularly_______ at eight in the morning. (REGULAR)

20. Do your classes start ________earlier________ or later? (EARLY)

V. Put the verbs in the brackets into correct tense or form:

21. She may be late if she (not hurry) _____doesn’t hurry_______.

22. If you are kind to me, I (be) ______will be______ good to you.

23. If he (give) ______. gives_______ up smoking, as his doctor orders, he will be soon well again.

24. You (not pass) _______won’t pass_______ your driving test unless you drive more carefully.

25. He’ll be ill if he (not stop) ________doesn’t stop____ worrying so much.

* Bộ đề do Thầy Bùi Văn Vinh biên soạn được VnDoc sưu tầm và reup với mong muốn mang đến cho thầy cô, các bậc phụ huynh nguồn tài liệu luyện thi tiếng Anh 5 lên 6 môn tiếng Anh đa dạng và hữu ích.

Trên đây là Đề thi thử môn tiếng Anh tuyển sinh lớp 6 có đáp án. Mời bạn đọc tham khảo thêm nhiều tài liệu luyện thi tuyển sinh lớp 6 năm 2023 các môn khác nhau được cập nhật liên tục trên VnDoc.com.

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