Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi môn tiếng Anh lớp 9 trường THCS Tam Hưng, Hà Nội năm học 2015 - 2016

Đề thi học sinh giỏi tiếng Anh lớp 9 - Đề thi học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh lớp 9 có đáp án

Mời quý thầy cô và các em học sinh tham khảo Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi môn tiếng Anh lớp 9 trường THCS Tam Hưng, Hà Nội năm học 2015 - 2016. Đề có nhiều dạng bài tập hay như phát âm, từ vựng, ngữ pháp, điền từ và đọc hiểu. Chúc em làm bài đạt kết quả cao!

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  • PART 1: PHONETICS
  • I. Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others by choosing A, B, C, or D:
  • 1.
  • 2.
  • 3.
  • 4.
  • 5.
  • II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others by choosing A, B, C, or D:
  • 6.
  • 7.
  • 8.
  • 9.
  • 10.
  • PART II. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR.
  • I. Choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete the sentences:
  • 11. I had to get up early, ..................... I would miss the train.
  • 12. My parents are going to take three days .................. next month to help my brother move his house.
  • 13. English is used as an access .................... a world scholarship and world trade.
  • 14. Parents love and support their children .................................. the children misbehave or do foolish things.
  • 15. The Historical Museum is becoming ..................... crowded.
  • 16. The scheme allows students from many countries to communicate ................... .
  • 17. Have you ever read anything ..................... Earnest Hengmingway?
  • 18. Not a good movie, .....................?
  • 19. Hoi An is ..................... for its old, small and tile-roofed houses.
  • 20. Hurry up! They have only got ..................... seats left.
  • 21. The party, at .............................. I was the guest honor, was extremely enjoyable.
  • 22. ............................... parrots are native to tropical regions is untrue.
  • 23. I came .................. an old friend while I was walking along the street.
  • 24. Everyone ..................Tom was invited to the party.
  • 25. If you .......................... to my advice in the first place, you wouldn't be in this mess now.
  • II. Use the words given to form a word that fits in the space.
  • 26. He has little ..................... of winning a prize. (EXPECT)
    expectation
  • 27. He resigned for a ..................... of reasons. (VARIOUS)
    variety
  • 28. He is very generous and everyone admires his ..................... . (SELF)
    selfessness unselfishness
  • 29. It seems ..................... to change the timetable so often. (LOGIC)
    illogical
  • 30. It is ..................... that you missed the meeting. (FORTUNE)
    unfortunate
  • 31. Could you ..................... the picture over the sofa? (STRAIGHT)
    straighten
  • 32. She wanted to have her skirt ..................... . (LONG)
    lengthened
  • 33. They all cheered ..................... as their team came out. (ENTHUSIASM)
    enthusiastically
  • 34. He will not benefit ..................... from the deal. (FINANCE)
    financially
  • 35. "Look after your mother," were his ..................... words. (DIE)
    dying
  • III. Complete each of the following sentences with one of the phrasal verbs given below (make any necessary changes).

    go over                give off                  hold back                 call off                    pay off            bring out        put aside
    make up for          see (someone) off                    put (someone) through to           run out of            bring (someone) round
  • 36. They had to .................. the football match because of weather.
    call off
  • 37. We managed to .................. by splashing his face with water.
    bring him round
  • 38. Could you .................. the manager, please?
    put through to
  • 39. The detective carefully .................. the facts with the witness.
    went over
  • 40. We’ve .................. sugar, could you go and buy some?
    run out of
  • 41. As the detective stories become popular once again, the publishing house decides to .................. a new edition of Christie’s work.
    bring out
  • 42. The film was so sad that she couldn’t .................. her tears
    hold back
  • 43. Ten employees were .................. as there wasn’t enough work for us
    paid off
  • 44. He bought some flowers to .................. his bad behavior.
    make up for
  • 45. The old widow warned her two sons not to spend so much money so fast in case that something could happen and told them to .................. some money for the future.
    put aside
  • PART III: READING
  • I. Choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete the passage:

    NEW HUNT FOR LIFE IN SPACE

    British space scientists are planning to join the American in the race to find evidence of life on (46) ……………..…. planets. Alan Penny and his team at the Rutherford Appleton Laboratory have designed a telescope that is 40 times more powerful than Hubble. Known as ‘Darwin’, his telescope could tell if planets 50 (47) ……………..….years away have any kind of life on them. Two days (48) ……………..…., NASA scientists had shown a proof that one of Jupiter’s moons could support life, Penny announced that his telescope may be included in a European Space Agency mission. The Darwin project, with a (49) ……………..…. of 500 million, is on a short list of two proposals. If approved it will probably be (50) ……………..…. around 2015, its destination somewhere between Mars and Jupiter. The blueprint is actually for five telescopes positioned 50 meters apart in space, slowly circling a (51) ……………..…. processing station. The combined data from these telescopes would build up a full picture of a planet, picking out faint images that have never been seen before. Darwin would not be able to take detailed photographs of the planets it (52) ……………..…., but Penny believes a second- generation telescope could be sent up to do this. He claims it is worthwhile mapping the universe around our (53) ……………..….galaxy, even though these planets lie (54)_______ our reach for the moment. The European Space Agency will make its decision (55) ……………..…. Darwin within three years.
  • 46.
  • 47.
  • 48.
  • 49.
  • 50.
  • 51.
  • 52.
  • 53.
  • 54.
  • 55.
  • II. Fill in each blank with one suitable word to complete the passage.

    Traveling to all corners of the world is (56) ……………..…. easier and easier. We live (57) ……………..…. a global village, but how well do we know and understand each other ? Here is (58) ……………..…. simple test. Imagine you have arranged a meeting at 4 p.m. What time should you expect your foreign business colleagues to arrive? If they are German, they'll be exactly (59) ……………..…. time. If they are American, they'll probably be 15 minutes early. If they are British, they be 15 minutes (60) ……………..…., and you should allow up to an hour for the Indians. Therefore, these are some small advice in (61) ……………..…. not to behave badly abroad. In France you shouldn’t sit down in a cafard until you are shaken hands with everyone you know. In Afghanistan you'd better spend at last 5 minutes (62) ……………..…. hello. In Pakistan you mustn’t wink. It is offensive. In the Middle East you must never use the left hand for greeting, eating, drinking or smoking. Also, you should care not to admire (63) ……………..…. in your host’s home. They will feel that they have to give it to you. In Russia you must your hosts drink for drink or they will think you are unfriendly. In Thailand you should clasp your hands (64) ……………..…. and lower your head and your eyes when you greet someone. In America you should eat your hamburger with both hands and as quickly as (65) ……………..….. You shouldn’t try to have a conversation until it is eaten
  • 56.
    getting becoming
  • 57.
    in
  • 58.
    a
  • 59.
    on
  • 60.
    late
  • 61.
    order
  • 62.
    saying
  • 63.
    anything
  • 64.
    together
  • 65.
    possible
  • III. Choose the best option A, B, C, or D to answer the following questions:

    Man is a land animal, but he is also closely tied to the sea. Throughout history the sea has served the need of man. The sea has provided man with food and a convenient way to travel to many parts of the world. Today, nearly two thirds of the world’s population live within 80 kms of the sea coast. In the modern technological world, the sea offers many resources to help mankind survive. Resources on land are beginning to be used up. The sea, however, still can be hoped to supply many of man’s needs. The list of riches of the sea yet to be developed by man’s technology is impressive. Oil and gas explorations have been carried out for nearly 30 years. A lot of valuable minerals exist on the ocean floor ready to be mined. Fish farming promises to be a good way to produce large quantities of food. The culture of fish and shellfish is an ancient skill practiced in the past mainly by Oriental people. Besides oil and gas, the sea may offer new sources of energy. Experts believe that the warm temperature of the ocean can be used in a way similar to the steam in a steamship. Ocean currents and waves offer possible use as a source of energy. Technology is enabling man to explore ever more deeply under the sea. The development of strong, new materials has made this possible. The technology to harvest the sea continues to improve. Experts believe that by the year 2050s the problems that prevent us from fully exploiting the food, minerals, and energy sources of the sea will be largely solved.
  • 66. The best title for this passage is ……………..….. .
  • 67. The major things that the sea offers man are ……………..…..
  • 68. The sea serves the needs of man because ……………..…..
  • 69. The word Oriental people in the fourth paragraph probably means ……………..…..
  • 70. We can conclude from the passage that ……………..…..
  • PART IV: WRITING
  • I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning.
  • 71. It was wrong of you to allow a four-year-old child to walk home alone.
    => You should ...................................................................................... .
    not have allowed a four-year-old child to walk home alone
  • 72. I could realize how important the family is only after I left home.
    => Not until ............................................................................ .
    I left home, could I realize how important the family is I left home, did I realize how important the family is
  • 73. Mrs. Green is proud of her son’s contribution to the play.
    => Mrs. Green is proud of what ................................................ .
    her son contributes to the play her son can contribute to the play
  • 74. They recruited very few young engineers.
    => Hardly .......................................................................... .
    any young engineers were recruited
  • 75. Only two out of the five rooms we have booked have air conditioning.
    => We have booked five rooms, only .......................................................... .
    two of which have air-conditioning
  • II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, using the word given in brackets. Do not change the words in anyway.
  • 76. It's possible Karen didn't hear her name being called. (might)
    => Karen .……………………………… her name being called.
    might not have heard
  • 77. “Don’t forget to lock the house when you go out, William,” his mother said. (reminded)
     => William’s mother …………………………………………… when he went out.
    reminded him to lock the house
  • 78. Nobody expected her to lose, but she did. (against)
    => Against .………………………………………….. she lost.
    everyone's expectation she lost
  • 79. There weren't many guests at the wedding. (only)
    => There were ……………………………… guests at the wedding.
    only a few
  • 80. Promise to look after it and you can borrow my tennis racquet. (long)
    => You can borrow my tennis racquet, …………………. to look after it.
    as long as you promise so long as you promise
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