Đề thi học sinh giỏi lớp 9 THCS tỉnh Quảng Bình năm học 2012 - 2013 môn Tiếng Anh - Có đáp án

Đề thi học sinh giỏi lớp 9 môn Tiếng Anh

Đề thi học sinh giỏi lớp 9 THCS tỉnh Quảng Bình năm học 2012 - 2013 môn Tiếng Anh được VnDoc.com sưu tầm và giới thiệu tới các bạn. Đây là đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi cấp tỉnh môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9, có đáp án đi kèm. Hi vọng tài liệu này giúp các bạn ôn thi học sinh giỏi đạt kết quả tốt, luyện thi vào lớp 10 các trường THPT chuyên hiệu quả. Mời các bạn tham khảo.

50 đề thi học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh lớp 9

Đề thi học sinh giỏi tỉnh Hà Tĩnh môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9 năm học 2010 - 2011

Đề thi học sinh giỏi lớp 9 THCS tỉnh Hải Dương năm 2012-2013

Đề thi học sinh giỏi lớp 9 môn Tiếng Anh tỉnh Vĩnh Phúc năm 2013-2014

Lưu ý:

• Thí sinh làm bài vào tờ giấy thi.
• Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, kể cả từ điển.
• Giám thị không hướng dẫn hoặc giải thích gì thêm.

I. LISTENING

Hướng dẫn phần thi nghe hiểu:

• Bài nghe gồm 2 phần, mỗi phần được ghi âm 2 lần. Giữa 2 lần ghi âm của mỗi phần và giữa các phần có một khoảng trống thời gian chờ.
• Mọi hướng dẫn làm bài cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.

Part 1. Listen to the recording and choose the best option (A, B, C or D) for the following statements and questions. (7 pts)

1. The expert says that there are ........................ people in the world today.

A. over 6.7 billion B. 6.7 billion C. about 6.7 million D. 6.6 billion

2. According to the expert, the population of the world increases by ........................ a year.

A. 66 million B. about 66 million C. 6.7 billion D. about 76 million

3. According to the expert, the area that has the highest population growth rate is ....................... .

A. Africa B. Latin America C. Asia D. the Middle East

4. Scientists say that the main reason for population explosion is ........................

A. death rates B. birth rates

C. an increase in death rates D. a decrease in death rates

5. Which of the following problems is NOT mentioned by the speaker?

A. literacy B. lack of hospitals and schools

C. shortage of food D. poor living conditions

6. According to experts, the population of the world will be ........................ by the year 2015.

A. over 6.7 billion B. over 7 billion C. about 76 million D. about 7 billion

7. How many solutions did the expert offer?

A. two B. three C. four D. five

Part 2. Fill in the following blanks according to what you hear. (8 pts)

Our primary method of research has been conducting short interviews with a large number of people. We decided that, unlike almost every other study-based research project we heard about, this one would make no categorical distinction between men and (8) ...................... . The two main groups, rather, would be adults and children, the idea for this obviously (9) ...................... from the fact that my 10-year-old cousin and I had (10) ...................... identical experiences. It should come as no surprise that, since they were generally more reserved about their inner (11) ...................... than children, adults were much more (12) ...................... than children to be interviewed by us. Surprisingly though, many of these adults were quite willing to give us (13) ...................... to interview their own children, who were generally much more (14) ...................... about the chance to talk about their dreams. Because of their helpfulness, we’ve already had (15) ...................... children subjects alone, and well over 350 total respondents.

II. PHONETICS

Pick out the word (A, B, C or D) whose underlined part is pronounced differently from those of the other words. (5 pts)

16. A. pleased B. punished C. practiced D. promised

17. A. beds B. doors C. students D. plays

18. A. tour B. course C. court D. pour

19. A. cell B. center C. cube D. ceiling

20. A. boot B. root C. shoot D. foot

III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR

Part 1. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each sentence. (10 pts)

21. Her marriage has been arranged by her parents. She is marrying a man ........................ .

A. she hardly knows him B. whom she hardly know him

C. she hardly knows D. All are correct

22. "Can I give you a little more coffee?" - “ ........................ ”

A. No, you're welcome. B. No. Thanks.

C. Yes, you're right. D. Yes, I'm OK.

23. It was ........................ serious accident that he was kept in hospital for a month.

A. such B. such a C. so D. so a

24. A fire must have a readily available supply of oxygen. ........................, it will stop burning.

A. Consequently B. Furthermore C. Otherwise D. However

25. I enjoy doing things on my own, and I don’t need company ........................ the time.

A. all B. most C. much D. whole

26. Harrods, in London, is probably one of the best-known ........................ in the world.

A. departmental stores B. department shops

C. department stores D. stores department

27. Robert does not have ....................... Peter does.

A. money more than B. as many money as

C. more money as D. as much money as

28. In ........................ 22nd SEA Games, Vietnam won ........................ 158 gold medals.

A. Ø/ the B. the/ Ø C. a/ the D. the/ the

29. You haven’t eaten anything since yesterday. You ........................ be really hungry.

A. might B. will C. can D. must

30. This ring is only made of plastic so it’s quite ........................ .

A. valuable B. invaluable C. worthless D. priceless

Part 2. Fill in each blank with one suitable preposition. (5 pts)

31. Most American men earn ........................ average about $110 a week.

32. He is married ........................ my friend.

33. You’d better not drink that milk, Joe. It’s gone ........................ .

34. Are you aware........................ the regulations concerning the use of guns?

35. I used to watch ........................ the postman's arrival to seize unwanted envelopes and tear off the corner with the stamp stuck on it.

Part 3. Complete the sentences with appropriate form of the word in block capitals. (5 pts)

36. ........................ are trying to find out new stars. SCIENCE

37. He was turned down for the job because he wasn’t........................ . QUALIFY

38. My colleagues are very pleasant but the manager is a little ........................ . FRIEND

39. Teenagers are now ........................ dressed. FASHION

40. Some people claim to be able to ........................ the future. TELL

Part 4. Put the verbs given in the brackets into their appropriate tenses or forms. (10 pts)

41. Peter did not get used to (get) ........................ up early when he first came to Vietnam.

42. By the time your brother (return) ........................ here next year, the city will have changed a lot.

43. What tune (play) ........................ when we came in?

44. I wish I (know) ........................ her address now.

45. They (learn) ........................ English from nine to ten in this room. Don’t let anyone disturb them then.

46. The prisoner is thought (escape) ........................ by climbing over the wall yesterday.

47. Five kilometres (be) ........................ a long way for a little boy to walk.

48. He stepped down from the bench on which he (stand) ................... and walked out of the room.

49. He (serve) ........................ in the army in the last war.

50. She regrets (not/ buy) ........................ that house. It is much more expensive now.

Part 5. In each of the following sentences, the 4 words or phrases are marked A, B, C or D. Identify the one underlined expression that is not correct and correct it. (5 pts)

51. The police has (A) not decided whether (or notB) to charge (C) the four young men (D).

52. Without (A) transportation, our (B) modern society (C) could not be existed. (D)

53. She (A) left (B) the room with not (C) saying a (D) word.

54. The more careful (A) you drive, the fewer (B) accidents (C) you will have (D).

55. The price of (A) crude oil used to be a great (B) deal lower (C) than now, wasn’t (D) it?

IV. READING COMPREHENSION

Part 1. Read the passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) which best fits each space. (10 pts)

What is money? The pound, the dollar or the franc are actually just like a gram or a kilometre. The difference is that you can exchange money for something (56) ........................ . A five pound note may buy a book, a huge bag of sweets, or a (57) ........................ of cinema tickets. But the note itself is only a printed (58) ........................ of paper which costs almost nothing to make.

Thousands of years (59) ........................ people didn't have money as we know (60) ........................ . There were no banks (61) ........................ even shops. In those days, Mr. Green, the farmer exchanged the corn he (62) ........................ grown for Mr. Hive's honey. This was an exchange arranged between the two (63) ........................, each of whom had something that the other wanted. But in time, most societies invented their own "currencies" (64) ........................ that people could exchange more. The different currencies began to join together, which is why (65) ........................ everyone uses a national currency.

56. A. other B. else C. another D. apart

57. A. couple B. double C. few D. several

58. A. slice B. part C. side D. piece

59. A. since B. past C. before D. ago

60. A. them B. it C. some D. that

61. A. or B. neither C. and D. but

62. A. did B. was C. had D. has

63. A. jobs B. people C. things D. goods

64. A. for B. by C. before D. so

65. A. tomorrow B. today C. recently D. soon

Part 2. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space. (10 pts)

People have always dreamed of living forever, and although we all know this will (66) ........................ happen, we still want to live as long as possible. Naturally, there are advantages and disadvantages to a long (67) ........................

In the first place, people (68) ........................ live longer can spend more time with their family and friends. Secondly, people who have busy working lives look forward to a long, relaxing time when they can do the things they have never had time for.

(69) ........................ the other hand, there are some serious disadvantages. Firstly, many people become ill and consequently have to (70) ........................ time in hospital or become (71) ........................ on their children and friends. Many of them (72) ........................ this dependence annoying or embarrassing. In addition to this, the (73) ........................ people get, the fewer friends they seem to have because old friends die or become ill and it's often (74) ........................ to make new friends.

To sum up, it seems that living to a very old age is worthwhile for people who stay healthy (75) ........................ to remain independent and enjoy life.

Part 3. Read the following passage and choose the correct answers (A, B, C, or D). (5 pts)

After inventing dynamite, Swedish-born Alfred Nobel became a very rich man. However, he foresaw its universally destructive powers too late. Nobel preferred not to be remembered as the inventor of dynamite, so in 1895, just two weeks before his death, he created a fund to be used for awarding prizes to people who had made worthwhile contributions to mankind. Originally there were five awards literature, physics, chemistry, medicine and peace. Economics was added in 1968, just sixty-seven years after the first awards ceremony.

Nobel's original legacy of nine million dollars was invested, and the interest on this sum is used for the awards which vary from $30,000 to $125,000.

Every year on December 10, the anniversary of Nobel's death, the awards are presented to the winners. Sometimes politics plays an important role in the judges' decisions. Americans have won numerous science awards, but relatively few literature prizes.

No awards were presented from 1940 to 1942 at the beginning of World War II. Some people have won two prizes, but this is rare; others have shared their prizes.

76. The word "foresaw" is nearest in meaning to ................

A. prevailed B. postponed

C. prevented D. predicted

77. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT:

A. awards vary in monetary value.

B. ceremonies are held on December 10 to commemorate Nobel's invention.

C. politics plays an important role in selecting the winners.

D. a few individuals have won two awards.

78. The passage implies that Nobel's profession was in ...............

A. economics B. medicine

C. literature D. science

79. The word "worthwhile" is closest in meaning to ...............

A. economic B. prestigious C. trivial D. valuable

80. What is the main idea of the passage?

A. Alfred Nobel became very rich when he invented dynamite.

B. Alfred Nobel created awards in six categories for contributions to humanity.

C. Alfred Nobel left all his money to science.

D. Alfred Nobel made lasting contribution to humanity.

V. WRITING

Part 1. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. (5 pts)

81. I haven't seen this film before.

→ This is…..……………………………………………………

82. “I was not there at the time,” he said.

→ He denied……………………………………………………

83. The bus takes longer than the train.

→ The train does……………….……………………………

84. I have never seen such a mess in my life!

→ Never in … ………………………………………………

85. My father is the owner of that car.

→ That car ……………………………………………………

Part 2. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between two and five words, including the word given. (5 pts)

86. Susan regrets not going to the airport to say goodbye to her friend. (WISHES)

→ Susan ................................. the airport to say goodbye to her friend.

87. Despite his age, he’s still working. (RETIRED)

→ He still ………………………….…… despite his age.

88. Despite knowing the area well, I got lost. (EVEN)

→ I got lost ………………………………..the area well.

89. I do not intend to tell you my plans. (OF)

→ I have.................................................... you my plans.

90. Graham spends all his time doing research. (DEVOTED)

→ Graham has …………………………… doing research.

Part 3. Composition (10 pts)

Write an essay at least 200 words about “The importance of technology in modern life”.

Đáp án đề thi học sinh giỏi lớp 9 môn Tiếng Anh

• Tổng số điểm toàn bài: 100 điểm
• Làm đúng mỗi câu, cho 1,0 điểm. Bài luận cho tối đa 10,0 điểm.
• Sau khi cộng toàn bộ số điểm, giám khảo quy về hệ điểm 10, không làm tròn số.

I. LISTENING

Part 1. (7 points)

1. A 2. D 3. B 4. D 5. A 6. B 7. C

Part 2. (8 points)

8. women 9. coming 10. nearly 11. feelings

12. unwilling 13. permission 14. enthusiastic 15. 264

II. PHONETICS (5 points)

16. A 17. C 18. A 19. C 20. D

III. LEXICO - GRAMMAR

Part 1. (10 points)

21. C 22. B 23. B 24. C 25. A

26. C 27. D 28. B 29. D 30. C

Part 2. (5 points)

31. on 32. to 33. off 34. of 35. for

Part 3. (5 points)

36. scientists 37. qualified 38. unfriendly 39. fashionably 40. foretell

Part 4. (10 points)

41. getting 42. returns 43. was being played 44. knew 45. will be learning

46. to have escaped 47. is 48. had been standing 49. served 50. not buying

Part 5. (5 points) (Chọn đúng 50%, sửa đúng 50%)

51. A. has → have

52. D. be existed → exist

53. C. with not → without

54. A. careful → carefully

55. D. wasn't → didn't

IV. READING COMPREHENSION

Part 1. (10 points)

56. B 57. A 58. D 59. D 60.B

61. A 62. C 63.B 64. D 65. B

Part 2. (10 points)

66. not/ never 67. life 68. who/that 69. On 70. spend

71. dependent 72. find 73. older 74. hard/difficult 75. enough

Part 3. (5 points)

76. D 77. B 78. D 79. D 80. D

V. WRITING

Part 1. (5 points)

81. This is the first time I have seen this film.

82. He denied being/ having been there/ (that) he had been there at the/ that time.

83. The train does not take as long as the bus (does).

84. Never in my life have I seen such a mess!

85. That car belongs to my father.

Part 2. (5 points)

86. wishes she had gone to

87. has not retired

88. even though I knew

89. no intention of telling

90. devoted all his time to

Part 3. (10 points)

• Notes: The mark given to part 3 is based on the following scheme:
• Content: (50% of the total mark)
• Organization and presentation: (20% of the total mark)
• Language: (20% of the total mark)
• Handwriting, punctuation and spelling: (10% of the total mark)