Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia môn Tiếng Anh trường THPT Chuyên Nguyễn Đình Chiểu, Đồng Tháp năm 2015

Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia môn Tiếng Anh hay

Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia môn Tiếng Anh trường THPT Chuyên Nguyễn Đình Chiểu, Đồng Tháp năm 2015 gồm 64 câu hỏi trắc nghiệm và 5 câu hỏi tự luận cùng phần thi viết đi kèm. Đề thi có đáp án, mời các bạn tham khảo và củng cố kiến thức, chuẩn bị cho kì thi THPT Quốc gia sắp tới.

Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia môn Tiếng Anh trực tuyến lần 1 trường THPT Ngô Sĩ Liên, Bắc Giang năm 2016

Bộ đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia môn tiếng Anh lần 2 trường THPT Yên Lạc, Vĩnh Phúc năm học 2015 - 2016

Bộ đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia môn Tiếng Anh năm 2015 lần 1 trường THPT Yên Lạc 2, Vĩnh Phúc

PART ONE: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. figure B. ever C. apply D. happy

Question 2: A. salary B. essential C. industry D. interview

Question 3: A. colony B. assistant C. possible D. holiday

Question 4: A. become B. improve C. forward D. between

Question 5: A. sincerely B. faithfully C. completely D. extremely

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

In the folklore of the Navajo people, it was said that frogs and toads fell from the sky when it rained. The phenomenon that gave rise to this belief involved the spadefoot toad, which remains dormant beneath the Sonoran Desert of Arizona, avoiding the heat and drought for as long as eight or nine months. With the onset of summer thunderstorms, however, the roads to respond to the vibrations of drumming raindrops and emerge, as if fallen from the sky with the rain, to begin their brief and frantic mating season.
The male spadefoot sits in a muddy pool and fills the night with his calls, attempting to attract a female of the same species. Once a female joins him, she may lay as many as 1,000 eggs in the small pool of life-sustaining rainwater. From that point it's a race against the elements for the young, who must hatch and mature with remarkable speed before the pool evaporates beneath the searing desert sun. As the pool grows smaller and smaller, it became thick with tadpoles fighting for survival in the mud, threatened not only by the loss of their watery nest but also by devouring insects and animals. In as few as nine days after fertilization of the eggs, those lucky enough to survive develop through each tadpole stage and finally emerge as fully formed toads. After gorging themselves on insects, the young toads, like their parents, burrow underground, where they will lie dormant awaiting the next summer's storms.

Question 6: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Navajo folklore B. Weather in the Sonoran Desert of Arizona
C. The habits of the spadefoot toad D. The mating rituals of the male spadefoot

Question 7: According to the passage, the spadefoot toad ________.

A. is dormant for as long as nine months B. reproduces during winter rains
C. eats leaves and grasses D. develops very slowly

Question 8: Which of the following is NOT true of the spadefoot?

A. They are active only three to four months a year.
B. The female lays their eggs in pools of water.
C. The searing desert sun is their only enemy.
D. Many tadpoles die before they reach maturity.

Question 9: It can be concluded from the passage that ________.

A. spadefoot toads could exist for years without rain.
B. the Navajo legends are based on acute observation.
C. spadefoot toads are well adapted to their environment.
D. the chances of a tadpole's becoming an adult are very great.

Question 10: The author is most likely a ________.

A. botanist B. biologist C. chemist D. geographer

Question 11: This passage is most likely followed by a passage on ________.

A. weather patterns in the Sonoran Desert
B. methods of reproduction among insects
C. dwellings of the Navajo people
D. other desert animals

Question 12: The word 'elements' could be best replaced by ________.

A. weather B. time C. environment D. thunderstorms

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks.

PLANNING AN ADVENTURE TRIP

Knowing what to expect form your destination will make all aspects of planning an adventure trip easier, as well as helping you to get the most out of the experience. Research will help you pick the best places to go but you'll also learn what you need to pack. what health and safety ___(13)____ to take, and what cultural (and sometimes political) issues you should be aware of.

Climate and seasonal pricing are important ____(14)____ in your decision about when to go. Especially for adventure travel, bad weather or weather you're not ____(15)____ for can ruin the trip. While you can't predict the ____(16)____ weather in advance, you can learn about climate ____(17)___ ahead of time when doing your destination research. Seasonal popularity and pricing should also be considered if you intend to keep away from peak-season crowd and prices.

While some research is absolutely ____(18)____, don't plan every moment of your trip in advance. Over-planning tends to make us less ____(19)____ to take part in the predictable and spontaneous ____(20)____ that are part of any sort of adventure travel. It's really important to keep a big reserve of excitement and energy ready for the unexpected.

Question 13: A. insurance B. precautions C. warnings D. information

Question 14: A. points B. reasons C. factors D. details

Question 15: A. anticipated B. prepared C. expected D. planned

Question 16: A. accurate B. correct C. true D. exact

Question 17: A. trends B. probabilities C. assessments D. estimations

Question 18: A. essential B. needed C. ideal D. useful

Question 19: A. curious B. interested C. appreciative D. willing

Question 20: A. circumstances B. performances C. events D. chances

Mark the letter on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.

Question 21: The company did not want to hire a man that his experiment was so limited.
A B C D

Question 22: He knows to repair the carburetor without taking the whole car apart.
A B C D

Question 23: Dresses, skirts, and children's clothing are advertised at great reduced prices this week.
A B C D

Question 24: Each of the students in the accounting class has to type their own paper this semester.
A B C D

Question 25: Everyday in summer, but especially at the weekends, all kinds of vehicles bring
A B
crowds of people to enjoy the various attraction.
C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the sentence which is closest in meaning to the given one.

Question 26: If anyone succeeds in solving the problem, it will probably be him.

A. If there is someone succeeds in solving the problem, it will probably be him.
B. He is the most likely person to succeed in solving the problem.
C. The only person who succeeds in solving the problem can be him.
D. He is the most likelihood to succeed in solving the problem.

Question 27: "I am in a bit of hurry, but I'll ring you tomorrow," he said.

A. He said that he was very hurries, but that he would ring me the next day.
B. He said he was a bit pressed for time, but that he would ring me the next day.
C. He said that he would ring me the next day as then he couldn't.
D. He said that he was in a bit of hurry and rang me the following day.

Question 28: It appears that the harvest workers think they were maltreated.

A. The harvest workers claim to have been maltreated.
B. The harvest workers claim to be maltreated.
C. The harvest workers claimed to have been maltreated.
D. The harvest workers are thought to have been maltreated.

Choose the best sentence (A, B, C or D) that is best made from the given prompts.

Question 29: regard/ your application/ regret/ inform/ vacancy/ already/ fill.

A. As regards your application, I regret informing you that the vacancy has already been filled.
B. As regards your application, I regret to inform you that the vacancy has already been filled.
C. As regards your application, I regret to inform you that the vacancy has already filled.
D. As regards to your application, I regret to inform you that the vacancy has already been filled.

Question 30: addition/ have/ considerable experience/ new/ secretary/ bilingual.

A. In addition to have considerable experience, the new secretary is also bilingual.
B. In addition to having considerable experiences, the new secretary is also bilingual.
C. In addition to having considerable experience, the new secretary is also bilingual.
D. In addition to have considerable experiences the, new secretary is also bilingual.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 31: _______ electricity you use, _______ your bill will be.

A. The most - the higher B. The more - the high
C. More - higher D. The more - the higher

Question 32: Who was the last one _______ the classroom yesterday?

A. to leave B. had left C. left D. leaving

Question 33: Bill: "Would you like a glass of beer?" John: "Not while I'm ___________"

A. on duty B. under control C. in order D. in the act

Question 34: We _______with a swim in the lake.

A. got out B. took up. C. cooled off D. gave in

Question 35: _______ your time! We don't have to be there until after eight.

A. Pass B. Take C. Have D. Run

Question 36: Tom: Do you know where Barb is?
Mary: Strange _______ sound, she is in South Africa.

A. may it B. as it may C. like it may D. does it

Question 37: They seemed to be _______ to the criticism and just carried on as before.

A. disinterested B. sensitive C. uncaring D. indifferent

Question 38: I have no idea how to_______ this kind of business.

A. make B. turn C. take D. run.

Question 39: Can you please tell me some information _______ to the job?

A. that indicates B. that are relating C. that relate D. relating

Question 40: The criminal knows the _______ of successful robberies.

A. trash and treasure B. part and parcel C. ins and outs D. close call

Question 41: Although he was under no _______the shopkeeper replaced the defective battery free of charge.

A. urgency B. guarantee C. insistence D. obligation

Question 42: This is the latest news from Timbuktu. Two-thirds of the city _______ in a fire.

A. has been destroyed B. were destroyed
C. was destroyed D. have been destroyed

Question 43: Tom: I saw you studying at the library last night.
Mary: You _______seen me; I wasn't there.

A. wouldn't have B. shouldn't have C. can't have D. mightn't have

Question 44: _______ I am aware, there were no problems during the first six months.

A. As far as B. So much as C. Much more than D. Except that

Question 45: A competitor may submit any number of entries _______ each one is accompanied by a packet top.

A. notwithstanding B. provided C. assuredly D. supposing

Question 46: Our industrial output _______ from $2 million in 2002 to $4 million this year.

A. rises B. rose C. was rising D. has risen.

Question 47: All three TV channels provide extensive _______of sporting events.

A. broadcast B. network C. coverage D. vision

Question 48: Tom: Is your government salary good?
Mary: Yes, but I don't make as much _______worked in private industry.

A. as I would if I B. if I would have C. I would if D. as I

Question 49: Tom: Who did you invite to dinner?
Mary: No one _______ than Frank and his family.

A. rather B. other C. except D. besides

Question 50: Not only John but his brothers ______ also in debt.

A. have B. were C. was D. is

Question 51: Helen: "Thank you very much for being with us tonight " Jame: "________"

A. You are welcome B. Yes C. Thanks D. No, nothing is right!

Question 52: The front gate gave way under the _______ of the crowd.

A. pressure B. task C. pull D. force

Question 53: Even if you are rich, you should save some money for a _______ day.

A. windy B. cloudy C. snowy D. rainy

Question 54: My _______ were very kind to me when I was seriously ill.

A. heart and soul B. by and large C. flesh and blood D. rank and file

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

It takes a long time to raise a family of owlets, so the great horned owl begins early in the year. In January and February, or as late as March in the North, the male calls to the female with a resonant hoot. The female is larger than the male. She sometimes reaches a body length of twenty-two to twenty-four inches, with a wingspread up to fifty inches. To impress her, the male does a strange courtship dance. He bobs. He bows. He ruffles his feathers and hops around with an important air. He flutters from limb to limb and makes flying sorties into the air. Sometimes he returns with an offering of food. They share the repast, after which she joins the dance, hopping and bobbing about as though keeping time to the beat of an inner drum.

Owls are poor home builders. They prefer to nest in a large hollow in a tree or even to occupy the deserted nest of a hawk or crow. These structures are large and rough, built of sticks and bark and lined with leaves and feathers. Sometimes owls nest on a rocky ledge, or even on the bare ground. even to occupy the deserted nest of a hawk or crow. These structures are large and rough, built of sticks and bark and lined with leaves and feathers. Sometimes owls nest on a rocky ledge, or even on the bare ground. The mother lays two or three round, dull white eggs. Then she stoically settles herself on the nest and spreads her feather skirts about her to protect her precious charges from snow and cold.

It is five weeks before the first downy white owlet pecks its way out of the shell. As the young birds feather out, they look like wise old men with their wide eyes and quizzical expressions. They clamor for food and keep the parents busy supplying mice, squirrels, rabbits, crayfish, and beetles. Later in the season baby crows are taken. Migrating songsters, waterfowl, and game birds all fall prey to the hungry family. It is nearly ten weeks before fledglings leave the nest to search for their own food. The parent birds weary of family life by November and drive the young owls away to establish hunting ranges of their own.

Question 55: What is the topic of this passage?

A. Raising a family of great horned owls
B. Mating rituals of great horned owls
C. Nest building of great horned owls
D. Habits of young great horned owls

Question 56: In line 2, the phrase "a resonant hoot" is closest in meaning to _______.

A. an instrument B. a sound C. a movement D. an offering of food

Question 57: It can be inferred from the passage that the courtship of great horned owls _______.

A. takes place on the ground B. is an active process
C. happens in the fall D. involves the male alone

Question 58: According to the passage, great horned owls ________.

A. are discriminate nest builders B. need big nests for their numerous eggs
C. may inhabit a previously used nest D. build nests on tree limbs

Question 59: According to the passage, which of the following is the mother owl's job?

A. To initiate the courtship ritual B. To feed the young
C. To sit on the nest D. To build the nest

Question 60: The phrase "precious charges" refers to ________.

A. the eggs B. the nest C. other nesting owls D. the hawks and crows

Question 61: According to the passage, young owlets eat everything EXCEPT ________.

A. other small birds B. insects C. small mammals D. nuts and seeds

Question 62: The word "they" refers to _________.

A. the wise old men B. the adult birds C. the young birds D. the prey

Question 63: What can be inferred from the passage about the adult parents of the young great horned owls?

A. They are sorry to see their young leave home.
B. They are lazy and careless about feeding the small owlets.
C. They probably don't see their young after November.
D. They don't eat while they are feeding their young.

Question 64: The phrase "weary of" is closest in meaning to _________.

A. tire of B. become sad about C. support D. are attracted to

PART TWO: WRITTEN QUESTIONS.

I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it.

Question 1: You should make an effort to get out and about more.

It's high time...........................................................................................

Question 2: It was overeating that caused his heart attack.

Had .......................................................................................................

Question 3: I've forgotten that commentator's name but he's very well-known.

That commentator, whose.....................................................................

Question 4: We can say that the leisure industry will be the money spinner of the future.

The leisure industry...............................................................................

Question 5: For gymnastics and skiing regular practice is needed.

Sports....................................................................................................

II. Paragraph writing:

"What leisure activity do you like to do best? Why?"

Write a paragraph to give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own experience or knowledge. Write at least 140 words.

Đáp án đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia môn Tiếng Anh

TỰ LUẬN: 2 điểm

I. Finish each of the following sentences ... (0.5)

1. It's high time you made an effort to get out and about more.

2. Had he not overeaten, he wouldn't have had a heart attack.

3. That commentator, whose name I've forgotten, is very well-known.

4. The leisure industry can be said to be the money spinner of the future.

5. Sports such as gymnastics and skiing need regular practice.

II. Paragraph writing: (1.5)

The impression mark given to each of parts is based on the following scheme:

1. Content: 50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate

2. Language: 30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language upper-secondary school students

3. Presentation: 20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of English language upper-secondary school students.