Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi cấp tỉnh môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9 tỉnh Quảng Bình năm học 2012 - 2013

Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9 có đáp án

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Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9 tỉnh An Giang năm 2013

Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9 tỉnh An Giang năm 2014

Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9 tỉnh An Giang năm 2015

I. LISTENING

Hướng dẫn phần thi nghe hiểu:

• Bài nghe gồm 2 phần, mỗi phần được ghi âm 2 lần. Giữa 2 lần ghi âm của mỗi phần và giữa các phần có một khoảng trống thời gian chờ.
• Mọi hướng dẫn làm bài cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.

Part 1. Listen to the recording and choose the best option (A, B, C or D) for the following statements and questions. (7 pts)

1. The expert says that there are ........................ people in the world today.

A. over 6.7 billion B. 6.7 billion C. about 6.7 million D. 6.6 billion

2. According to the expert, the population of the world increases by ........................ a year.

A. 66 million B. about 66 million C. 6.7 billion D. about 76 million

3. According to the expert, the area that has the highest population growth rate is ....................... .

A. Africa B. Latin America C. Asia D. the Middle East

4. Scientists say that the main reason for population explosion is ........................

A. death rates B. birth rates

C. an increase in death rates D. a decrease in death rates

5. Which of the following problems is NOT mentioned by the speaker?

A. literacy B. lack of hospitals and schools

C. shortage of food D. poor living conditions

6. According to experts, the population of the world will be ........................ by the year 2015.

A. over 6.7 billion B. over 7 billion C. about 76 million D. about 7 billion

7. How many solutions did the expert offer?

A. two B. three C. four D. five

Part 2. Fill in the following blanks according to what you hear. (8 pts)

Our primary method of research has been conducting short interviews with a large number of people. We decided that, unlike almost every other study-based research project we heard about, this one would make no categorical distinction between men and (8) ...................... . The two main groups, rather, would be adults and children, the idea for this obviously (9) ...................... from the fact that my 10-year-old cousin and I had (10) ...................... identical experiences. It should come as no surprise that, since they were generally more reserved about their inner (11) ...................... than children, adults were much more (12) ...................... than children to be interviewed by us. Surprisingly though, many of these adults were quite willing to give us (13) ...................... to interview their own children, who were generally much more (14) ...................... about the chance to talk about their dreams. Because of their helpfulness, we've already had (15) ...................... children subjects alone, and well over 350 total respondents.

II. PHONETICS

Pick out the word (A, B, C or D) whose underlined part is pronounced differently from those of the other words. (5 pts)

16. A. pleased B. punished C. practiced D. promised

17. A. beds B. doors C. students D. plays

18. A. tour B. course C. court D. pour

19. A. cell B. center C. cube D. ceiling

20. A. boot B. root C. shoot D. foot

III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR

Part 1. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each sentence. (10 pts)

21. Her marriage has been arranged by her parents. She is marrying a man ........................ .

A. she hardly knows him B. whom she hardly know him

C. she hardly knows D. All are correct

22. "Can I give you a little more coffee?" - " ........................ "

A. No, you're welcome. B. No. Thanks.

C. Yes, you're right. D. Yes, I'm OK.

23. It was ........................ serious accident that he was kept in hospital for a month.

A. such B. such a C. so D. so a

24. A fire must have a readily available supply of oxygen. ........................, it will stop burning.

A. Consequently B. Furthermore C. Otherwise D. However

25. I enjoy doing things on my own, and I don't need company ........................ the time.

A. all B. most C. much D. whole

26. Harrods, in London, is probably one of the best-known ........................ in the world.

A. departmental stores B. department shops

C. department stores D. stores department

27. Robert does not have ....................... Peter does.

A. money more than B. as many money as

C. more money as D. as much money as

28. In ........................ 22nd SEA Games, Vietnam won ........................ 158 gold medals.

A. Ø/ the B. the/ Ø C. a/ the D. the/ the

29. You haven't eaten anything since yesterday. You ........................ be really hungry.

A. might B. will C. can D. must

30. This ring is only made of plastic so it's quite ........................ .

A. valuable B. invaluable C. worthless D. priceless

Part 2. Fill in each blank with one suitable preposition. (5 pts)

31. Most American men earn ........................ average about $110 a week.

32. He is married ........................ my friend.

33. You'd better not drink that milk, Joe. It's gone ........................ .

34. Are you aware........................ the regulations concerning the use of guns?

35. I used to watch ........................ the postman's arrival to seize unwanted envelopes and tear off the corner with the stamp stuck on it.

Part 3. Complete the sentences with appropriate form of the word in block capitals. (5 pts)

36. ........................ are trying to find out new stars. SCIENCE

37. He was turned down for the job because he wasn't........................ . QUALIFY

38. My colleagues are very pleasant but the manager is a little ........................ . FRIEND

39. Teenagers are now ........................ dressed. FASHION

40. Some people claim to be able to ........................ the future. TELL

Part 4. Put the verbs given in the brackets into their appropriate tenses or forms. (10 pts)

41. Peter did not get used to (get) ........................ up early when he first came to Vietnam.

42. By the time your brother (return) ........................ here next year, the city will have changed a lot.

43. What tune (play) ........................ when we came in?

44. I wish I (know) ........................ her address now.

45. They (learn) ........................ English from nine to ten in this room. Don't let anyone disturb them then.

46. The prisoner is thought (escape) ........................ by climbing over the wall yesterday.

47. Five kilometres (be) ........................ a long way for a little boy to walk.

48. He stepped down from the bench on which he (stand) ................... and walked out of the room.

49. He (serve) ........................ in the army in the last war.

50. She regrets (not/ buy) ........................ that house. It is much more expensive now.