Đề thi thử THPT Quốc Gia 2023 môn Anh liên trường THPT Nghệ An
Đề thi thử THPT Quốc Gia 2023 môn tiếng Anh có đáp án
Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia môn Anh 2023 liên trường THPT Nghệ An có đáp án với nooijdung bám sát chương trình SGK tiếng Anh lớp 12 giúp các em học sinh ôn tập kiến thức Từ vựng - Ngữ pháp tiếng Anh trọng tâm hiệu quả.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 1 to 5.
The world is getting smaller, at least when it comes to language. More and more people speak the three most common languages: English, Spanish, and Mandarin. As a result, local languages are being forgotten. As cultures adjust to these changes, and languages aren't taught to children or spoken at home, these local languages are slowly disappearing.
A language is said to be in trouble when less than 30 percent of children in the community speak it. It is considered a dying language. If children no longer learn to use a language, it will have fewer and fewer speakers over time and, eventually, the language will be gone. Why keep languages alive? Languages hold the key to understanding a culture's beliefs and values. According to Dr. Cumberland, who is working to save Assiniboine, a Native American language, a dying language needs a dictionary and people to understand and record its grammar. Most importantly, you need to listen to those who still speak the language. This can be very difficult, especially if there are very few speakers of the language left. For example, when researchers were working to save the language Ayapaneco in Mexico, it was hard for them to record anything because the last two people on Earth who could speak the language refused to speak to each other! Today, the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) lists more than 3,000 languages that may disappear by the end of this century. Some of the languages still have a few million speakers and may survive. Unfortunately, hundreds of languages have fewer than 25 speakers remaining and may soon be lost forever.
Question 1. What is the main idea of this reading?
A. Many languages are disappearing around the world.
B. Languages help us understand other cultures.
C. Most people speak English, Spanish, and Mandarin.
D. People should learn new languages.
Question 2. Why are local languages being spoken less and less?
A. People prefer to learn and speak more common languages.
B. People who know the language don't want to speak to each other.
C. People use computers to communicate now.
D. Children do not talk to their grandparents.
Question 3. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. To save a dying language, it is necessary to listen to people who still speak it.
B. Fewer and fewer people speak local languages.
C. The last two people who could speak Ayapaneco liked to speak to each other.
D. According to UNESCO, more than 3,000 languages may go extinct by the end of this century.
Question 4. The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to
A. languages
B. researchers
C. speakers
D. local people
Question 5. When is a language considered to be dying?
A. when about 50 percent of local people speak it
B. when it doesn't have a dictionary
C. when it is only spoken by old people
D. when less than 30 percent of local children learn it
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 6. Two students, Anna and Linda, are talking about cyberbullying.
Anna: “I believe that children should be provided guidance on how to deal with cyberbullying.”
Linda: “ ______ . This can help them have more enjoyable experiences on the Internet.”
A. Sorry, but you’re right.
B. Actually, I quite agree anymore.
C. I don’t think you’re correct.
D. No doubt.
Question 7. Mike meets Mary in their class after Mary has had her hair cut.
- Mike: "What an attractive hairstyle you have got, Mary!"
- Mary: “______”
A. You are telling a lie
B. Thank you for your compliment
C. Thank you very much. I am afraid
D. I don't like your sayings
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 8. It used to be assumed that jellyfish were among the simplest life forms, as it had no brain or central nervous system.
A. among
B. assumed
C. it
D. nervous
Question 9. She attends a close friend’s party in a luxurious restaurant yesterday.
A. luxurious
B. in
C. close
D. attends
Question 10. Many distinguishable scholars agreed that the strategic decision the government had made to help curb the spread of the virus was unreasonable.
A. distinguishable
B. strategic
C. unreasonable
D. curb
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 11 to 17.
Due to the nature of our business, it's sometimes necessary that our staff work at night. Night shifts can be particularly demanding on employees’ well-being and health. This can include disruption to the body clock, fatigue, sleeping difficulties, disturbed appetite and digestion, reliance on sedatives or stimulants, and other symptoms of ill health. To combat this, we do not have employees on night shifts for extended periods. This is because workers’ bodies will just have started to adapt to the new pattern.
We find rotation shifts every two to three days are best for workers and weekly or fortnightly rotations are the least comfortable for workers. Forward-rotating programs (moving from morning to afternoon to night shifts) are better than backward-rotating ones in terms of sleep loss and tiredness.
If someone works at night, there are rules covering the hours they work. Night-time working hours are usually between 11 p.m. and 6 a.m. – but this can be flexible and should be discussed between you and us. To qualify as night working, the night time period must be no more than 8 hours long and include the period between midnight and 5 a.m. Any of our staff under 18 years are not allowed to be night workers.
We must make sure that you don't work more than an average of 8 hours in a 24-hour period. We must also keep records of any night workers’ working hours to prove they aren't exceeding night working limits, and we must keep the records for at least 2 years. These records can be inspected by you at any time on request.
If you agree to working at night for us, the agreement will be put in writing. If you are to begin working at night, we must perform a health assessment before you become a night worker and on a regular basis after that. Usually, this is just done with a questionnaire, which was created in collaboration with qualified health professionals. If there are any health questions regarding your health and night work, we will offer you a follow-up examination by a health professional if you still wish to work nights.
Question 11. The word “sedatives" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______
A. anaesthetics
B. tranquillisers
C. alcohol
D. painkillers
Question 12. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. It is reasonable for us to work on a night shift in order that we can get extra income.
B. Night working can be available at any time on workers’ request.
C. We should take part in many programs in which we can work on night shifts for a long time.
D. We should look into specific regulations relating to night workers if we want to work on a night shift.
Question 13. Which of the following could best serve as the topic of the passage?
A. Rules for Considering Time Working.
B. Night shifts have great impacts on workers' well-being and health
C. What should we do when going on business?
D. Notes for Employees Considering Night Time Working
Question 14. The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to _______
A. rules
B. Night time working hours
C. the hours
D. someone works at night
Question 15. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Under existing regulations, nighttime working hours are required to be from 11 p.m. to 6 a.m.
B. Backward-rotating shift schedules are best for minimizing employees’ fatigue.
C. The maximum length of a night shift at the company is 24 hours.
D. The company must retain records relating to night workers’ hours for leastwise 2 years.
Question 16. The word “exceeding” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______
A. decreasing
B. outpacing
C. preceding
D. reducing
Question 17. In paragraph 5, who were consulted when creating the health assessment questionnaire?
A. night workers
B. lead assessors
C. a health assessment
D. qualified health professionals
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 18. Although he had prepared carefully for the IELTS speaking test, he got cold feet when asked an array of questions with abstract concepts.
A. became aggressive
B. had a fever
C. stayed confident
D. got nervous
Question 19. Urbanization has many adverse effects on the structure of society as gigantic concentrations of people compete for limited resources.
A. favorable
B. unlucky
C. harmful
D. disadvantageous
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 20. His mother won’t let him watch his favourite program ______.
A. once he finished the housework
B. as soon as he will finish the housework
C. until he finishes the housework
D. after he had finished the housework
Question 21. A new government policy is designed to help people on low ______.
A. winnings
B. earnings
C. savings
D. proceeds
Question 22. I love my aunt, but she'll talk your ______ off if you let her!
A. head
B. knee
C. eye
D. hand
Question 23. During the emergency, many staff volunteered ______ through the weekend.
A. work
B. to work
C. to working
D. working
Question 24. They used to have some ______ rows over bringing up children.
A. shining
B. scorching
C. blazing
D. intense
Question 25. He seldom goes to bed late, ______?
A. does he
B. doesn’t he
C. is he
D. isn’t he
Question 26. I reported to the police that my stamp collection ______ the week before.
A. has stolen
B. had stolen
C. had been stolen
D. stole
Question 27. Nam runs ______ than other boys in his class.
A. the fastest
B. more faster
C. faster
D. fastest
Question 28. Measures are being ______ to reduce crime in the city.
A. put
B. done
C. taken
D. made
Question 29. The local council has decided to ______ a concert to raise money for cancer charities.
A. run through
B. come up
C. take up
D. put on
Question 30. He became accustomed ______ living in the countryside.
A. to
B. by
C. on
D. with
Question 31. The leader of the explorers had the great ______ in his native guide.
A. confidentially
B. confident
C. confidential
D. confidence
Question 32. All the candidates ______ were given a second interview.
A. selected
B. were selected
C. were selecting
D. selecting
Question 33. When she ______homework in her room, her phone rang.
A. had done
B. did
C. was doing
D. have done
Question 34. We need to be at ______ airport in just over an hour.
A. an
B. Ø ( no article)
C. the
D. a
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 35. “What will you do this evening, John?” Mark asked.
A. Mark wanted to know what John would do this evening.
B. Mark asked John what he would do that evening.
C. Mark asked John what John did that evening.
D. Mark wanted to know what she and John would do that evening.
Question 36. It is impossible for you to buy a penthouse with little money.
A. You can’t buy a penthouse with little money.
B. You will buy a penthouse with little money.
C. You are able to buy a penthouse with little money
D. You have to buy a penthouse with little money.
Question 37. It’s ten years since I came back to my hometown.
A. The last time I came back to my hometown was ten years.
B. I haven’t come back to my hometown for ten years.
C. I last come back to my hometown ten years ago.
D. I have come back to my hometown for ten years.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 38. Joe is not here with us. He will know how to fix this technical issue.
A. Provided that Joe is here with us, he won’t know how to fix this technical issue.
B. We wish Joe were here with us and fix this technical issue.
C. Joe will know how to fix this technical issue even if he is not here with us.
D. If only Joe were here with us to help fix this technical issue.
Question 39. The food was disgusting. We complained to the manager .
A. Only when the food was disgusted did we complain to the manager.
B. Had it not been for the disgusting food, we wouldn’t have complained to the manager .
C. No sooner had we complained to the manager than the food was quite disgusting.
D. Disgusting though the food was, we complained to the manager of the restaurant.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 40. A. lake B. mass C. wave D. play
Question 41. A. honor B. honest C. hour D. horror
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 42. A. industry B. maintenance C. chemistry D. department
Question 43. A. inform B. refuse C. pollute D. visit
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 44. The union is up in arms over the reduction in health benefits.
A. excited
B. satisfied
C. happy
D. angry
Question 45. Humans depend on species diversity to provide food, clean air and water, and fertile soil for agriculture.
A. variety
B. destruction
C. fertilizer
D. contamination
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase that best fits each other numbered blanks.
With the widespread availability of the internet and the development of social media, communication consumption has a decidedly personal character, (46) ______ the Spanish sociologist Manuel Castells calls mass self-communication. Apart from this, people have also studied computer-mediated communication since the technology first became available in the 1970s. Early studies focused on teleconferencing, and how interactions between large groups of strangers differ from interactions with known partners. (47) ______studies were concerned with whether communication methods lacking nonverbal cues could influence the meaning and quality of social interactions. Today, people have (48) _______ to both text-based and visual information, so those studies are no longer useful. Information is now (49) ______in many directions and methods, and audiences can vary from one person to many thousands. (50) ______, everyone with an internet connection can be a content creator and media source. As a result, social interaction has been becoming more individualized than ever before.
Question 46. A. what B. who C. that D. which
Question 47. A. Others B. The other C. Another D. Other
Question 48. A. admit B. tool C. means D. access
Question 49. A. made B. collected C. distributed D. spread
Question 50. A. In addition B. However C. Meanwhile D. Yet
Đáp án có trong file tải: Đáp án + Đề thi thử tốt nghiệp thpt 2023 môn Anh liên trường THPT tỉnh Nghệ An. VnDoc.com hy vọng rằng tài liệu tiếng Anh trên đây sẽ giúp các em học sinh lớp 12 ôn luyện kiến thức tại nhà hiệu quả.
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