Đề thi thử THPT Quốc Gia môn tiếng Anh năm 2020 số 7
Đề thi TNPT 2020 môn tiếng Anh có đáp án
Đề ôn thi tốt nghiệp THPT năm 2020 môn tiếng Anh có đáp án dưới đây nằm trong bộ đề thi THPT Quốc Gia 2020 môn Anh mới nhất do VnDoc.com sưu tầm và đăng tải. Đề thi tiếng Anh 12 có đáp án với cấu trúc giống với đề thi minh họa môn tiếng Anh THPTQG giúp các em học sinh lớp 12 làm quen với các dạng bài tập tiếng Anh hiệu quả.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
|Question 01:||A. opened||B. laughed||C. scratched||D. washed|
|Question 02:||A. said||B. trait||C. maid||D. faith|
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
|Question 03:||A attend||B. visit||C. apply||D. appear|
|Question 04:||A creation||B. electronic||C. alarming||D. musician|
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer that best fits the blank in each of the following questions.
Question 05: The travel agent gave me........useful information.
Question 06 I would go to the seaside if the weather........good.
C. has been
D. will be
Question 07: While the builders were repairing the roof they........the bathroom window.
C. have broken
D. was broken
Question 08: They promised to write, ........we never heard from them again.
Question 09: Beware of the people who appear to be enthusiastic .......your success.
Question 10: ........they didn’t want to watch the film.
A. On knowing its ending
B. To have known its ending
C. As soon as they know its ending
D. Having known its ending
Question 11: When........by the new coach, the football team won five successive matches.
A. are led
B. having led
Question 12: Peter regretted.......the proposal to work for a company in Hanoi.
A. to be accepted
B. being accepted
C. to have accepted
D. having accepted
Question 13: Before the invention of refrigeration, the.......of fish and meat was a problem.
Question 14: The bus........from High Street to the Station Road is 30p.
Question 15: Many of the jobs which have been created in this area can be directly ........to tourism.
Question 16: They all take too much........of his kindness and generosity.
Question 17: It was terrible. One passenger was killed, and the other was.......injured.
Question 18: Their accounts were completely phony. They had been cooking the........for years.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: The memorandum sent to all departments stressed how urgent the action was.
Question 20: The driver of the car was liable for the damages caused to the passenger.
C. legally responsible
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21: One of our group's main goals is to discourage the use of chemical fertilizers.
Question 22: If you are at a loose end this weekend, I will show you round the city.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 23: ~ Bill: "Let’s stop for a drink." ~ Bruce: "............"
A. Long time no see.
B. Nice to meet you.
C. Sony, we’ve got little time.
D. You’re welcome.
Question 24: ~ Jack: "I’m going to take a five-day trip to Rome." ~ Jill: "............"
A. No, of course not.
B. Have a good time.
C. The same to you.
D. Yes, let's.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C,or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
GOING ON A DIET
A typical person needs about 1,800 calories per day to stay running. They keep your organs operating (25).....and your brain running. They also keep your body warm. A person gains weight because he or she consumes more calories per day than necessary. The only way to lose fat is to reduce the number of calories that you consume per day. This is the basic principle (26).....going on a diet.
Unfortunately, diets don’t work for most people. They do lose weight but then go off the diet and put it back. Building a sensible diet and exercise plan is the key to maintaining a consistent weight. You need to figure out how many calories you need in a day and how many you actually (27)...... The next step is to add exercise so that you can raise the number of calories you can consume per day.
Burning 250 or 500 calories per day can make a big (28)...... You can ride an exercise bike while you are watching television or you can take the stairs instead of the elevator. Find an exercise partner. Exercises can be a lot easier if there is someone to talk to. It’s a good idea to wear firm fitting clothes ifyou are (29)..... Tight clothing acts as a reminder of what you are trying to accomplish.
Question 25: A. proper B. properly C. improper D. improperly
Question 26: A. behind B. beside C. inside D. outside
Question 27: A. take off B. take in C. take up D. take away
Question 28: A. sense B. mistake C. impression D. difference
Question 29: A. on a holiday B. on a balance C. on either side D. on a diet
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
THE ART WORLD
One of the major problems in the art world is how to distinguish and promote an artist. In effect, a market must be created for an artist to be successful. The practice of signing and numbering individual prints was introduced by James Abbott McNeill Whistler, the nineteenth century artist best known for the painting of his mother, called "Arrangement in Grey and Black", but known to most of us as "Whistler’s Mother". Whistler’s brother-in-law, Sir Francis Seymour Haden, a less well-known artist, had speculated that collectors might find prints more attractive if they knew that there were only a limited number of copies produced. By signing the work in pencil, an artist could guarantee and personalize each print.
As soon as Whistler and Haden began the practice of signing and numbering their prints, their work began to increase in value. When other artists noticed that the signed prints commanded higher prices, they began copying the procedure.
Although most prints are signed on the right-hand side in the margin below the image, the placement of the signature is a matter of personal choice. Indeed, prints have been signed within image, in any of the margins, or even on the reverse side of the’print. Wherever the artist elects to sign it, a signed print is still valued above an unsigned one, even in the same edition.
Question 30:Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?
A. Whistler’s Mother.
B. Whistler’s Greatest Works.
C. The Practice of Signing Prints
D. Copying Limited Edition Prints.
Question 31:What made Whistler’s work more valuable?
A. His fame as an artist.
B. His painting of his mother.
C. His signature on the prints.
D. His brother-in-law’s prints.
Question 32:The word “speculated" in the paragraph 1 could best be replaced by.......
Question 33:The word "it" in paragraph 3 refers to.........
A. the same edition
B. the image
C. the reverse side
D. a print
Question 34:The author mentions all of the following as reasons why a collector prefers a signed print EXCEPT…...
A. it guarantees the print’s authenticity
B. it makes the print more personal
C. it encourages higher prices for the print
D. it limits the number of copies of the print
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Long before they can actually speak, babies pay special attention to the speech they hear around them. Within the first month of their lives, babies' responses to the sound of the human voice will be different from their responses to other sorts of auditory stimuli. They will stop crying when they hear a person talking, but not if they hear a bell or the sound of a rattle. At first, the sounds that an infant notices might be only those words that receive the heaviest emphasis and that often occur at the ends of utterances. By the time they are six or seven weeks old, babies can detect the difference between syllables pronounced with rising and falling inflections. Very soon, these differences in adult stress and intonation can influence babies' emotional states and behavior. Long before they develop actual language comprehension, babies can sense when an adult is playful or angry, attempting to initiate or terminate new behavior, and so on, merely on the basis of cues such as the rate, volume, and melody of adult speech.
Adults make it as easy as they can for babies to pick up a language by exaggerating such cues. One researcher observed babies and their mothers in six diverse cultures and found that, in all six languages, the mothers used simplified syntax, short utterances and nonsense sounds, and transformed certain sounds into baby talk. Other investigators have noted that when mothers talk to babies who are only a few months old, they exaggerate the pitch, loudness, and intensity of their words. They also exaggerate their facial expressions, hold vowels longer, and emphasize certain words.
More significant for language development than their response to general intonation is
observation that tiny babies can make relatively fine distinctions between speech sounds. In other words, babies enter the world with the ability to make precisely those perceptual discriminations that are necessary if they are to acquire aural language.
Babies obviously derive pleasure from sound input, too; even as young as nine months they will listen to songs or stories, although the words themselves are beyond their understanding. For babies, language is a sensory-motor delight rather than the route to prosaic meaning that it often is for adults.
Question 35: The passage mentions all of the followings as the ways adults modify their speech when talking to babies EXCEPT…...
A. using meaningless sounds
B. speaking more loudly than normal
C. giving all words equal emphasis
D. speaking with shorter sentences
Question 36: The word "diverse" is closest in meaning to…...
Question 37: The word "They" refers to.........
Question 38: Why does the author mention "a bell and a rattle"?
A. To give examples of sounds that will cause a baby to cry
B. To explain how babies distinguish between different nonhuman sounds
C. To give examples of typical toys that babies do not like
D. To contrast the reactions of babies to human and nonhuman sounds
Question 39: The word "emphasize" is closest in meaning to.…...
B. leave out
Question 40: What point does the author make to illustrate that babies are born with the ability to acquire language?
A. Babies notice even minor differences between speech sounds.
B. Babies are more sensitive to sounds than are adults.
C. Babies begin to understand words in songs.
D. Babies exaggerate their own sounds and expressions.
Question 41: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. How babies differentiate between the sound of the human voice and other sounds
B. How babies perceive and respond to the human voice in their earliest stages of language development
C. The response of babies to sounds other than the human voice
D. The differences between a baby's and an adult's ability to comprehend language
Question 42: According to the author, why do babies listen to songs and stories, even though they cannot understand them?
A. They enjoy the sound.
B. They understand the rhythm.
C. They focus on the meaning of their parents' word.
D. They can remember them easily.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: Almost all the students were boring because Ms. Kelly’s explanation was unclear.
Question 44: If it is carefully doing, the experiment will be successful.
Question 45: Last night’s storm was terrible; the thunder and the lightning kept me wakeful for hours.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: He last had his eyes tested ten months ago.
A.He had tested his eyes ten months before.
B. He had not tested his eyes for ten months then.
C. He hasn't had his eyes tested for ten months.
D. He didn't have any test on his eyes from ten months
Question 47: "Why don't you participate in the volunteer work in summer?" said Sophie.
A. Sophie suggested me to participate in the volunteer work in summer.
B. Sophie asked me why not participate in the volunteer work in summer.
C. Sophie suggested that I should participate in the volunteer work in summer.
D. Sophie made me participate in the volunteer work in summer.
Question 48: You can try as hard as you like but you won’t succeed.
A. However hard you try, you won’t succeed.
B. You can hardly try as you like, but you won’t succeed
C. You won’t succeed because you can’t try as hard.
D. Although you won’t succeed, you can try as hard as you like.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: We didn't want to spend a lot of money. We stayed in a cheap hotel.
A. Rather than spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel.
B. In spite of spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel.
C. We stayed in a cheap hotel, but we had to spend a lot of money.
D. We didn’t stay in a cheap hotel as we had a lot of money to spend.
Question 50: We should quickly find the solution to the problem. Otherwise, its impact on those concerned will increase.
A. If we can solve this problem soon, we’ll lower the impact on all of our concerns
B. By the time we solve this problem, the impact on those concerned will have been lowered
C. If all those concerned lower their impact, the problem will be better solved
D. The sooner we find the solution to the problem, the lower the impact it has on those concerned
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