Chuyên đề Đọc hiểu 10 câu tiếng Anh

Đọc hiểu đoạn văn tiếng Anh - Dạng 10 câu

Nối tiếp bộ tài liệu ôn thi tốt nghiệp THPT Quốc gia 2026 môn Anh, tài liệu Đọc hiểu đoạn văn tiếng Anh 10 câu bao gồm nhiều bài tập đọc hiểu đoạn văn tiếng Anh có đáp án khác nhau giúp các em học sinh ôn luyện những kỹ năng tiếng Anh cơ bản hiệu quả.

Bộ câu hỏi đọc hiểu văn bản tiếng Anh - Đề số 1

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 40.

1. FRIEND GLOBAL 12

The Pennine Way is a 469-kilometre walking path which runs from the Peak District in Derbyshire to just inside the Scottish border. [I] Other trails go further, but it is known as the most challenging. [II] Some people see this trail as an opportunity to take a pleasant day's hike on a small section of the route, but eighteen-year-old David Lemming saw it as a challenge. [III] 'I'd come across a great account of hiking the whole trail, written a few years ago, and I was determined to do it myself. I didn't feel anxious - I was just excited to get going! [IV]

Things went perfectly for the first week. David was really enjoying the experience. Since many people use the trail, he was constantly meeting fellow hikers, so he never felt isolated. 'But then it got really stormy, he says, 'so a lot of people gave up. I could go for hours without seeing anyone at all. But as long as I had my mobile, I wasn't really worried about anything bad happening!

Unfortunately, something bad did happen. During a particularly heavy rain storm, David slipped in the mud and fell about ten metres down the hill. 'I realised I'd broken my arm immediately. Then I found that my mobile had fallen out of my pocket. And when I tried to get up to look for it , I couldn't stand up at all. My leg was injured too.’

All he could do was to shout for help. 'I yelled until my throat was sore, he says. 'And nothing happened. But then I saw a head at the top of the hill someone had heard me. A man came down, saw the state I was in and called for help. And really, that was the most amazing part of the whole experience. At the hospital, even the doctors were impressed at how much of the trail I'd covered . I felt really proud!

(Adapted from Friend Global)

Question 1. Where in paragraph 1 does the following sentence best fit? "David was excited to start his adventure, despite the difficulties he knew he would face."

A. [II]

B. [I]

C. [IV]

D. [III]

Question 2. The phrase "come across" in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by ______.

A. looked for

B. struggled with

C. thought about

D. found unexpectedly

Question 3. According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT a benefit of using the trail?

A. Feeling connected with nature

B. Getting professional hiking advice

C. Experiencing solitude during storms

D. Meeting new people

Question 4. The word "it" in paragraph 3 refers to ______.

A. arm

B. pocket

C. hill

D. mobile

Question 5. Which of the following best summarises paragraph 3?

A. David encountered serious difficulties due to bad weather.

B. David's leg was injured, but he managed to finish the trail.

C. David enjoyed walking alone on the trail.

D. David's mobile phone helped him call for help.

Question 6. The word "yelled" in paragraph 4 is OPPOSITE in meaning to ______.

A. cried

B. shouted

C. spoke

D. whispered

Question 7. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?

A. David gave up when the weather got stormy.

B. David was afraid from the start of the hike.

C. The trail was easy for David in the beginning.

D. David met few people during the whole journey.

Question 8. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4?

A. David was proud because the doctors praised his efforts.

B. The doctors were surprised that David had completed the trail.

C. The doctors could not believe David had survived the accident.

D. David had managed to hike much of the trail despite his injuries.

Question 9. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. David was not prepared for the difficulties he faced.

B. David completed the entire Pennine Way before getting injured.

C. Bad weather makes the Pennine Way even more dangerous.

D. The Pennine Way is only for experienced hikers.

Question 10. Which of the following best summarises the passage?

A. David was unprepared for the Pennine Way and was injured halfway through.

B. David faced a difficult experience on the Pennine Way but received help in time.

C. David successfully completed the Pennine Way despite all challenges.

D. The Pennine Way is the longest and most dangerous trail in the UK.

2. THINK 12 ⇱

Shoppers who use the internet to research hotels, books, electronics and other purchases are being misled by millions of “fake” reviews orchestrated by companies to trick potential customers, the consumer watchdog warns today as it begins an inquiry.

(I) More than half of the adults in Britain, around 25 million people, use online review websites such as Amazon, Tripadvisor, Expedia and Checkatrade to find the best deals. (II) But their impressions are “distorted” by the growth of a “clandestine” market for fake reviews, the Competition and Market Authority has discovered. It found some companies were breaking the law by writing flattering posts about themselves to boost their rankings. (III) Others were offering money, free product samples or other “rewards” to people who write positive reviews or give five-star ratings. In some cases, rival firms were posting disparaging remarks to cloud the judgement of potential customers. And some review websites were hiding negative reviews because they had commercial arrangements with the companies facing criticism. (IV)
The scale of the issue is unknown because fake reviews are difficult to spot, the CMA said. However, it expressed concern that abuse could be widespread. Although some websites told the regulator just 2 per cent of their reviews were spurious, other sources claimed the proportion was “much higher”, the watchdog said. An investigation will now commence, and firms found to be acting illegally will be fined and their bosses may face prison.

Consumer groups welcomed the move because research showed around £23 billion of purchases a year were influenced by online reviews. Guy Anker, a director of consumer advice experts website, said: “It is utterly appalling that companies are engaging in practices where they are duping potential customers who just want an honest appraisal of their services. Review websites are a vital part of people’s research, whether that’s booking a hotel or buying a product, and so visitors need to be able to trust them.”

One of the best-known specialist sites is Tripadvisor, which hosts hundreds of millions of reviews written by and for holidaymakers. Booking agents such as Expedia and retailers such as Amazon also provide reviews alongside their primary function of selling a product or service. Checkatrade has 1.8 million reviews of electricians, plumbers, builders and other tradesmen, while Reevoo and Feefo collect and manage reviews on behalf of clients. Many of these are free to use with revenues coming from advertising, paid-for links, payments or commissions from the companies listed or the provision of “reputation management” services to these firms . Some sites have developed systems to detect and verify fake reviews, but others had not, the CMA said.

It warned that websites were in some cases “selectively ordering” reviews so that positive ones came to the front. “Hiding” negative reviews is against the law, it said. he different commercial arrangements might influence the reviews and the way they were obtained was not always clear to users. Customers were also trying to abuse the system by “blackmailing” companies by threatening to leave a negative review.

(Adapted from Think 12)

Question 11. Where in passage 2 does the following sentence best fit? "This manipulation creates a misleading picture for consumers trying to make informed decisions."

A. (I)

B. (II)

C. (IV)

D. (III)

Question 12. The phrase “clandestine market” in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by _____.

A. secret and illegal market

B. traditional and local market

C. open and transparent market

D. popular and legal market

Question 13. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to _____.

A. the online review system

B. the issue of fake reviews

C. the market

D. the Competition and Market Authority

Question 14. According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT a tactic used by companies to manipulate reviews?

A. Paying consumers to write honest reviews.

B. Posting negative comments about competitors.

C. Offering money for positive reviews.

D. Hiding negative reviews.

Question 15. Which of the following best summarises paragraph 3?

A. Investigations into fake reviews are necessary.

B. Consumers should be more vigilant when reading reviews.

C. Regulatory bodies are ineffective at stopping fake reviews.

D. The extent of fake reviews is significant but hard to quantify.

Question 16. The word "appalling" in paragraph 4 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _____.

A. shocking

B. alarming

C. surprising

D. acceptable

Question 17. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?

A. All online reviews are verified before being posted.

B. The CMA has found no evidence of illegal practices.

C. Some websites receive payment from companies to hide negative reviews.

D. Consumers are generally unaware of fake reviews.

Question 18. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 5?

A. Online review websites are expensive to use because of advertising.

B. Most websites charge companies to maintain their reviews.

C. Websites earn money by offering additional services to companies.

D. Companies do not have to pay to appear on review websites.

Question 19. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. Consumers have no way of detecting fake reviews.

B. Fake reviews have a significant impact on consumer purchasing decisions.

C. Online reviews are a reliable source of information for consumers.

D. Most companies engage in illegal review manipulation.

Question 20. Which of the following best summarises the passage?

A. Review websites are taking steps to ensure the authenticity of all reviews.B. Consumers

should stop using online review websites due to the risk of being misled.

C. Fake reviews are rare and have little influence on online purchases.

D. The CMA is investigating the widespread issue of fake reviews and their impact on consumers.

3. ENGLISH DISCOVERY SGK

HIDDEN TALENTS
(I) Despite some recent advances, there is still a great deal about the human brain that remains a mystery. (II) We know it is made up of about 100 billion nerve cells, called neurons, connected like wires in a giant telephone exchange . We know messages pass down them like electrical signals and jump from one neuron to the next when chemicals known as neurotransmitters are released. (III) But what we don't fully understand are things like consciousness, intelligence and creativity. (IV)
Much of our knowledge comes from studying brain functions when things go wrong. There are some fascinating cases of where a bang on the head has brought about changes in personality or caused a person to become talented in a way, they weren't at all before the injury.
A famous case was Jason Padgett, a furniture salesman from Washington, who was mugged by two men after leaving a karaoke bar. He survived the attack, but was left unconscious. Soon afterwards, he noticed that his vision had changed. He also realised that he had developed remarkable mathematical abilities. Padgett began to see patterns in everything he looked at, and to draw complex geometric figures. He seemed to understand the mathematical nature of the universe despite the fact that he had little formal academic training. The man who had barely scraped through his school exams ended up pursuing a career in mathematics as a number theorist.
Another example of this syndrome is twenty-four-year-old Ben McMahon from Australia, who fell into a coma after a car crash. A week later, he woke up speaking Mandarin Chinese. He had studied Chinese at school, but had never been fluent until the accident. McMahon works now as a Chinese-speaking tour guide in Australia.
Orlando Serrell suffered a head injury when he was knocked out in a baseball game at the age of ten. When he regained consciousness, he felt OK and finished the game. After a year, he realised he had acquired extraordinary memory skills and could recall the day of the week of any given date. He has never made a mistake. For instance, ask him about 11 February 1983 and he says 'Friday. It was raining that day. I had a pizza - pepperoni sausage.'
There is no single theory to explain each case, but many researchers believe that acquired savant syndrome happens when the right side of the brain compensates for an injury to the left side. The condition is rare fewer than one hundred cases have been identified. Some of us are athletic, some of us mathematical, some of us artistic, and others musical; some of us are just good, while some are exceptional. The challenge is how to access that hidden knowledge and skill without experiencing a bang on the head.

(Adapted from English Discovery 12)

Question 21. Where in paragraph I does the following sentence best fit? We even know where many of the different brain functions, such as memory, sight and smell, are located

A. (II)

B. (I)

C. (IV)

D. (III)

Question 22. The phrase "like wires in a giant telephone exchange" in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by ______.

A. Similar to a massive network of computers

B. Like cables in a massive communication center

C. Resembling connections in a grand circuit board

D. Like lines in a huge power grid

Question 23. The word "them" in paragraph 1 refers to ______.

A. Signals

B. Neurons

C. Neurotransmitters

D. Brain functions

Question 24. According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT a known effect of a head injury?

A. Change in personality

B. Sudden memory improvement

C. Increase in intelligence

D. Development of new skills

Question 25. Which of the following best summarises paragraph 3?

A. Jason Padgett’s career change

B. Padgett’s interest in geometric figures

C. Padgett’s childhood experiences with math

D. The impact of a head injury on Padgett’s abilities

Question 26. The word "extraordinary" in paragraph 5 is OPPOSITE in meaning to ______.

A. Regular

B. Exceptional

C. Impressive

D. Rare

Question 27. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?

A. Jason Padgett had always excelled in mathematics.

B. Orlando Serrell developed a perfect memory after his head injury.

C. No one knows how to develop savant syndrome without injury.

D. Ben McMahon was fluent in Mandarin before his accident.

Question 28. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4?

A. McMahon is fluent in Mandarin and gives tours in Australia.

B. McMahon moved to Australia to work as a tour guide.

C. McMahon has a job in Australia guiding tourists and speaks Chinese fluently.

D. McMahon teaches Chinese to tourists in Australia.

Question 29. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. All savant skills develop after a head injury.

B. Mathematical skills are the most common form of savant talent.

C. Savant abilities may exist in some individuals but remain dormant.

D. Savant syndrome is usually diagnosed in childhood.

Question 30. Which of the following best summarises the passage?

A. The human brain is largely a mystery, but certain injuries can unlock hidden talents.

B. Brain injuries always lead to new talents or enhanced abilities.

C. Jason Padgett’s story is an example of rare brain injury outcomes.

D. Savant syndrome is common and has many explanations.

ĐÁP ÁN

1 - A; 2 - D; 3 - B; 4 - D; 5 - A; 6 - D; 7 - C; 8 - A; 9 - C; 10 - B;

11 - C; 12 - A; 13 - D; 14 - A; 15 - D; 16 - D; 17 - C; 18 - C; 19 - B; 20 - D;

21 - D; 22 - B; 23 - B; 24 - B; 25 - D; 26 - A; 27 - B; 28 - C; 29 - C; 30 - A;

Bộ câu hỏi đọc hiểu văn bản tiếng Anh - Đề số 2

Exercise 1. Read the following passage about the world’s first GPS and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions.

THE WORLD’S FIRST GPS

On a stormy night in 1707, four ships struck rocks off the south coast of England and sank. One thousand, four hundred sailors were drowned. [I] The ships had crashed because they had no way of knowing how far they had travelled in a particular direction; they could not calculate their longitude, which required accurate time measurement. [II] It was the most serious in a series of accidents at sea, and a stunned British government decided to act. [III] In such difficult circumstances, they believed that the best response to the disaster was a competition: the Longitude Prize. [IV]

The Longitude Prize was an exceptional contest. To claim victory, a person needed to find a method for determining the distance a ship had traveled east or west from its point of departure. Geniuses such as Sir Isaac Newton had failed to find a solution, so to ensure the interest of Britain's greatest scientific minds, the government offered a prize of £20,000 - the equivalent of £2.6 million in today's money. However, to everyone's surprise, it wasn't a famous academic who solved the problem, but an unknown carpenter. When John Harrison wasn't engaged in woodworking, he was making clocks. An accurate clock would enable sailors to ascertain their position, but at the time it was believed that making a mechanical clock capable of operating on a ship was impossible. The movement of the sea and the changes in temperature destroyed the delicate parts . However, after three frustrated attempts, Harrison's fourth sea clock, H4, finally triumphed . Its mechanics were so good that the H4 worked better than most clocks on land.

The Longitude Prize and Harrison's success generated a lot of interest in the 18th century, but it was soon forgotten. However, in 2013, the British government created a new Longitude Prize, offering £10 million to the person who could solve a great challenge to humanity. An enthralled public then took part in a TV programme where viewers chose one challenge from a list of six for scientists to focus on. The question now is, will someone be able to solve it just as well as Harrison solved the challenge presented to him?

(Adapted from Friend Global 12 – SGK)

Question 1. Where in paragraph 1 does the following sentence best fit? The sailors’ deaths highlighted the urgent need for a method to calculate longitude.

A. [IV]

B. [II]

C. [III]

D. [I]

Question 2. The word they in paragraph 1 refers to ______.

A. ships

B. accidents

C. rocks

D. sailors

Question 3. What is the main idea of paragraph 1?

A. How Britain responded to a severe maritime disaster

B. The importance of calculating latitude

C. How clocks revolutionized navigation

D. Britain’s history of ship accidents

Question 4. The word triumphed in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by ______.

A. delayed

B. won

C. improved

D. repeated

Question 5. Which of the following is TRUE about the Longitude Prize?

A. The prize was worth £20,000 in today’s money.

B. The prize was awarded to Isaac Newton.

C. The prize was awarded to someone who calculated latitude.

D. The prize was awarded to an unknown carpenter.

Question 6. The word enthralled in paragraph 3 is OPPOSITE in meaning to ______.

A. frustrated

B. inspired

C. excited

D. bored

Question 7. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 2?

A. The sea's motion and varying temperatures made it difficult for the fragile components to remain intact.

B. The clock's delicate parts were ruined because of the ship's unstable movement and temperature fluctuations.

C. The fragile parts of the clock were damaged due to the constant motion of the ship and temperature shifts.

D. Changes in temperature and the ship's movement caused the delicate components of the clock to malfunction.

Question 8. Which of the following can be inferred about John Harrison?

A. Harrison’s success was unexpected, especially considering his background as a carpenter.

B. Harrison’s clocks were quickly adopted by the scientific community for various uses.

C. Harrison was widely recognized for his contribution during his lifetime.

D. Harrison became a famous academic after winning the Longitude Prize.

Question 9. Which of the following best summarises paragraph 3?

A. The British government launched a TV show to honor Harrison's achievements and remind the public of the Longitude Prize's importance.

B. The Longitude Prize, initially forgotten, was reintroduced by the British government to engage the public in solving new scientific challenges.

C. The British government is currently offering a reward for scientists to solve the challenges that Harrison originally faced.

D. Harrison's achievements in the 18th century were forgotten until the public rediscovered his work through a popular television programme.

Question 10. Which of the following best summaries the passage?

A. The passage discusses the challenges sailors faced in navigation and the creation of the Longitude Prize to solve this issue.

B. The story focuses on the Longitude Prize and how John Harrison, a carpenter, solved the navigation problem using a clock.

C. This passage outlines the history of the Longitude Prize and its revival in modern times to solve current global challenges.

D. The Longitude Prize was established in the 18th century to solve navigation problems and was revived in 2013 for new scientific challenges.

Exercise 2. Read the following passage about agile working and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions.

AGILE WORKING

The world is undergoing rapid transformation due to advancements in technology, globalisation, and recurring crises, compelling workplaces to continuously adapt to remain competitive. In traditional work environments, an exemplary employee was one who adhered to a strict 9-to-6 schedule, followed directives, and maintained a diligent appearance. However, with the proliferation of smartphones and internet access, many companies now operate with virtual teams across different time zones. Consequently, employees are often required to manage tasks remotely and engage in work outside of conventional hours, shifting the emphasis from merely working hard to working more efficiently [I]

The managerial role has also evolved. [II] Rather than micromanaging, many organisations now implement a project-oriented approach, where managers define objectives and facilitate collaboration. Agile managers play a pivotal role in helping employees adjust to varying responsibilities across projects , fostering a culture of flexibility and teamwork.

In response to these changes, organisations are increasingly adopting agile working practices. [III] According to Unilever, agile working entails "achieving work outcomes with maximum flexibility and minimal restrictions." This approach transcends flexible hours or remote working; it also encompasses designing workspaces that cater to diverse tasks. These may include open spaces for collaborative efforts, standing desks to enhance energy and productivity, quiet areas for deep focus, and social zones for informal interactions. Such environments are specifically tailored to meet the individual needs of employees, liberating them from the constraints of a traditional office setting.

In essence, agile working prioritizes adaptability in all facets of professional life—working hours, locations, technologies, roles, and team dynamics. [IV] This flexibility equips organisations to navigate a rapidly evolving landscape, boosting productivity while fostering a more dynamic workforce. By embracing agility, companies not only enhance performance but also create an environment conducive to innovation and employee well-being, securing their competitive edge in a constantly shifting world.

(Adapted from Agile working - LearnEnglish)

Question 11. Where does the following sentence best fit? These changes have not only impacted employees but also revolutionised managerial roles.

A. [I]

B. [III]

C. [II]

D. [IV]

Question 12. The word proliferation in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by ______.

A. limitation

B. increase

C. control

D. elimination

Question 13. The word facilitate in paragraph 2 is OPPOSITE in meaning to ______.

A. guide

B. encourage

C. support

D. obstruct

Question 14. The word These in paragraph 3 refers to ______.

A. Technological changes

B. Employees' needs

C. Working hours

D. Workspaces

Question 15. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 2?

A. Employees rely on managers to strictly control their roles and responsibilities.

B. Agile managers are responsible for keeping employees on track with their individual tasks.

C. Agile managers focus on training employees for remote tasks only.

D. Managers are essential in assisting employees to switch tasks and manage their time more efficiently.

Question 16. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?

A. Managers have become more controlling in the modern workplace.

B. Agile working only refers to working remotely from home.

C. Agile working also involves creating flexible physical workspaces.

D. Traditional work environments relied more on flexible hours.

Question 17. According to the passage, what is one example of how workplaces have become more agile?

A. Teams work virtually across different time zones.

B. Employees are discouraged from working remotely.

C. Employees work strictly from 9 to 6.

D. Managers micromanage projects more closely.

Question 18. Which of the following best summarises paragraph 3?

A. Agile management is about reducing managerial responsibilities.

B. Managers play no role in helping employees adjust to project responsibilities.

C. Agile managers should micromanage employees to ensure project success.

D. Agile managers define objectives and encourage collaboration across projects.

Question 19. Câu39. Which of the following best summarises the entire passage?

A. Remote working has negatively impacted employee productivity.

B. Agile working is transforming workplaces by focusing on flexibility and adaptability.

C. The traditional workplace is making a comeback due to new technologies.

D. Workplaces today remain unchanged despite technological advancements.

Question 20. Which of the following can be inferred about the future of workplace management?

A. Workplaces will return to traditional 9-to-6 schedules.

B. Agile working practices will likely disappear in a few years.

C. Flexible workspaces and hours will become more common in the future.

D. Managers will focus more on micromanaging individual employees.

Exercise 3. Read the following passage about building trust and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions.

BUILDING TRUST

Establishing robust business relationships is predicated on collaboration and teamwork, with trust forming an essential cornerstone. Nevertheless, the methods for cultivating trust can vary widely among individuals and cultures. Understanding these differences allows us to strengthen trust with colleagues and clients, thereby fostering deeper professional relationships. [I]

Take Valeria, for example. She tried to build rapport with her international clients by discussing personal topics such as her family life and parenting techniques, even going so far as to share pictures of her children. Unfortunately, her clients found this behavior unprofessional, which undermined their trust in her. [II] Similarly, Kelly engaged in a team-building activity at a British company, where she highlighted her academic accomplishments in an attempt to impress her new colleagues. Instead of being impressed, her coworkers were uncomfortable, interpreting her remarks as self-promotion. Likewise, trainer David encountered challenges when he attempted to establish credibility with his trainees by recounting his experiences with prestigious companies and high-profile clients. However, the participants deemed his approach irrelevant, preferring that he focus on the training content rather than on his past achievements. [III]

[IV] The intricacies of building trust stem from the differing expectations of those involved. Trust expert Richard Barrett identifies two core dimensions of trust: character and competence. Building trust through character involves exhibiting qualities such as integrity, fairness, and transparency, while building trust through competence focuses on demonstrating expertise, achievements, and experience. The emphasis placed on these two approaches largely depends on the context. In a job interview, for instance, competence may take precedence , whereas in a collaborative team setting, character traits like honesty and openness are more highly valued.

In the end, there is no single, definitive approach to cultivating trust. Quick judgments, like those made by Valeria’s clients or Kelly’s colleagues, can impede the development of trust. By assuming positive intent and practicing generosity in our evaluations of others, we create an environment where trust can thrive in professional relationships.

(Adapted from Building trust - LearnEnglish)

Question 21. Where would the following sentence best fit in the passage? Cultural factors often play a significant role in how trust is perceived.

A. [II]

B. [III]

C. [IV]

D. [I]

Question 22. The word rapport in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by ______.

A. antagonism

B. estrangement

C. affinity

D. formality

Question 23. The word precedence in paragraph 3 is OPPOSITE in meaning to ______.

A. inferiority

B. importance

C. priority

D. relevance

Question 24. The word he in paragraph 2 refers to ______.

A. David

B. Valeria

C. Richard Barrett

D. Kelly

Question 25. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4?

A. The same strategy should always be used to foster trust.

B. Trust is impossible to develop in professional environments.

C. Trust can be built through various ways depending on the situation.

D. Everyone should follow the same method to establish trust in business.

Question 26. According to the passage, what was the main issue Valeria faced with her clients?

A. They were impressed by her personal stories.

B. They found her overly friendly.

C. They appreciated her openness.

D. They saw her personal sharing as unprofessional.

Question 27. Which of the following did Kelly do in the British company’s team-building exercise?

A. She praised her coworkers.

B. She highlighted her academic achievements.

C. She discussed her family.

D. She shared photos of her children.

Question 28. Which of the following best summarises paragraph 2?

A. Trust building is essential in business.

B. Different behaviors can affect how trust is perceived in a business setting.

C. Personal sharing is inappropriate in all cultures.

D. Valeria's approach to building trust was successful.

Question 29. Which of the following best summarises the entire paragraph?

A. Building trust in business is straightforward and universal.

B. Establishing trust is primarily about showing competence.

C. Personal relationships are more important than professional ones.

D. Trust is built through teamwork and collaboration, but approaches can vary across cultures.

Question 30. Based on the passage, what can be inferred about trainer David’s approach?

A. He failed to understand the importance of competence in training.

B. His trainees were highly impressed by his corporate experience.

C. He effectively gained the trainees' trust by sharing his experience.

D. His focus on past accomplishments was irrelevant to his trainees' needs.

Bộ câu hỏi đọc hiểu văn bản tiếng Anh - Đề số 3

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions.

Exercise 1.

Identical twins

Identical twins are born when an egg divides into two, resulting in the birth of two children with identical genes. In truth, of course, the events might also be explained in more ordinary terms . Some believe, however, that there is also a close connection between twins in the way they think, not just in the way they look. Twins finish each other's sentences, and share the same tastes in clothes or music. Some have argued that identical twins have mysterious, even psychic, powers. Although many identical twins claim to know what the other is thinking, there is no evidence to suggest that this is because of special powers . A more believable explanation is that, like any pair of people who have grown up together, they are just good at understanding the thought processes behind what their twin does.

[I] . Most of us have met up with a brother or sister, or close friend, and immediately asked, 'What's wrong?' because we have unconsciously recognised, in their facial expression, that they are upset in some way. [II] . It is hardly surprising that twins notice the way their brother or sister's facial expressions or body language gives away how they feel. [III] . Indeed, the closeness of their bond is likely to improve this ability over the years. [IV] .

The media is full of stories in which a twin senses her brother or sister to be in trouble. In a recent, widely-reported case, for example, a young man survived a horrific fall thanks to a feeling his twin is supposed to have had. Damien Croft developed a bad headache one evening and, concerned, felt the need to phone his brother to check if everything was OK. When there was no reply, he drove to his brother's home, only to find him unconscious, having had an epileptic fit and fallen from a ladder while decorating. On the face of it, his sixth sense had saved the day. The fact that something awful had happened was only a coincidence. Damien knew his brother was decorating, and knew that he was prone to epileptic fits. Subconsciously concerned, he had just imagined the worst-case scenario. In contrast, there are many other stories which can be more easily explained.

Question 1. Where in paragraph 2 does the following sentence best fit? Signs we would miss in a stranger's behaviour are instantly obvious in the way those close to us act.

A. [I]

B. [III]

C. [II]

D. [IV]

Question 2. What is the opposite of the word "unconsciously" in paragraph 2?

A. instinctively

B. automatically

C. deliberately

D. involuntarily

Question 3. The phrase "survived a horrific fall" in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by ____.

A. lived through a terrible fall

B. fell from a great height

C. escaped from a minor accident

D. died in a terrible incident

Question 4. What does "they" in paragraph 2 refer to?

A. twins B. strangers C. friends D. family members

Question 5. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?

A. Twins always have psychic powers.

B. Twins sometimes finish each other's sentences.

C. Identical twins have similar thoughts.

D. Twins can read each other's body language.

Question 6. Which of the following best summarises paragraph 2?

A. Identical twins have mysterious powers.

B. Twins can recognize each other's feelings by observing facial expressions and body language.

C. People close to us notice our expressions better than strangers.

D. Twins often know what each other is thinking.

Question 7. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?

A. The media never reports cases of twins having a special connection or knowing when the other is in trouble.

B. The passage provides evidence that all twins possess psychic powers and can sense each other's feelings.

C. Identical twins always know when their sibling is in danger and can act before something bad happens.

D. Damien felt a sudden headache and rushed to his brother's house, where he found him after an epileptic fit.

Question 8. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph ?

A. Identical twins can understand each other well because they have special abilities.

B. Twins often claim psychic powers, but this has been scientifically proven.

C. Twins who claim to know each other's thoughts actually have special powers.

D. Many twins can read each other's minds, but this may not be due to psychic abilities.

Question 9. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. The connection between twins is mostly due to their shared experiences and understanding of each other's habits.

B. All twins can develop psychic abilities over time if they are close enough.

C. Identical twins are the only siblings who are able to know what the other is thinking without any form of communication.

D. Twins can always sense when something bad is going to happen to their sibling, even without any prior knowledge.

Question 10. Which of the following best summarizes the passage?

A. Although twins have a special connection, their psychic abilities have been proven to exist in only a few rare cases.

B. The passage focuses on how twins with psychic abilities are often able to prevent accidents and dangerous situations.

C. Twins can predict the future and always know when their sibling is in trouble, which makes them unique.

D. Twins have a strong bond that allows them to understand each other well, but this is more likely due to familiarity and shared experiences than any psychic ability.

Exercise 2.

Extraordinary people

There are people in this world who have incredible abilities that seem to break the laws of nature. Here are three real-life superheroes who have amazed the world with their talents.
[I] .Wim Hof, also known as ‘The Iceman’, is a Dutch man who has broken the limits of what humans can do in low temperatures. [II] . He has set several world records for his ability to deal with freezing temperatures, including th e longest ice bath and longest full-body contact with ice, although those records have been broken many times. [III]. Wim has developed a method of breathing that allows him to control his body temperature and survive extreme cold. [IV]. He has run a full marathon in the Arctic Circle and almost reached the peak of Mount Everest in just shoes and shorts in 2007!

Daniel Tammet, from the UK, is often called ‘The Human Calculator’, due to his incredible abilities to do maths. Daniel can solve complicated mathematical problems in his head at lightning speed. Daniel also has an amazing language learning ability. He can speak a wide variety of different languages, including Icelandic, which he took just one week to learn! He has even written three books about his life and talents.

Stephen Wiltshire. aka. 'The Human Camera’, is a British artist with an incredible ability to draw detailed pictures of cities from memory. Wiltshire can take a brief helicopter ride over a city and perfectly recreate the view in his drawings. He has drawn famous cities like New York, Rome, and Tokyo, and his artwork has appeared in galleries around the world.

These three individuals have shown that human beings can do extraordinary things beyond what we can imagine. Their talents can inspire us to think differently about the world around us and encourage us to achieve great things, even when they might seem impossible!

*aka: who known as

Question 11. Where in paragraph 2 does the following sentence best fit? He is also able to explain how he arrives at the solutions, which adds to his astonishing abilities.

A. [I]

B. [II]

C. [IV]

D. [III]

Question 12. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?

A. Daniel Tammet can solve complex maths problems quickly in his head.

B. Daniel Tammet learned Icelandic in just one week.

C. Stephen Wiltshire is known for his ability to draw buildings from memory.

D. Stephen Wiltshire's artwork focuses on animals and nature.

Question 13. Which of the following best summarises paragraph 4?

A. Stephen Wiltshire’s helicopter tours of cities have made him one of the best artists in the world.

B. Stephen Wiltshire’s ability to draw cities from memory has earned him worldwide fame as an artist.

C. Stephen Wiltshire draws from imagination rather than memory, creating beautiful cityscapes.

D. Stephen Wiltshire is able to draw any place after observing it once, but he mostly focuses on nature scenes.

Question 14. What is the opposite of the word “brief” in paragraph 4?

A. detailed

B. quick

C. short

D. long

Question 15. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?

A. Daniel Tammet wrote three books, all of which are about learning languages.

B. Stephen Wiltshire can only draw cities that he has visited multiple times.

C. Daniel Tammet learned Icelandic in one month before writing his first book.

D. Stephen Wiltshire can recreate a city’s view after a short helicopter ride.

Question 16. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4?

A. Wiltshire needs to visit a city multiple times to remember its details for his drawings.

B. Wiltshire flies over cities, but his drawings of them are not always accurate.

C. Wiltshire draws views of cities based on pictures he has seen from helicopter rides.

D. After a short flight over a city, Wiltshire can accurately draw what he saw.

Question 17. The word “extraordinary” in the last paragraph could be best replaced by ____.

A. incredible

B. average

C. usual

D. normal

Question 18. What does the word “they” in the last paragraph refer to?

A. cities B. talents C. books D. people

Question 19. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. Stephen Wiltshire prefers drawing cities because they are easier than landscapes.

B. Both Daniel and Stephen have inspired others to think about the potential of the human mind.

C. Daniel Tammet learned Icelandic to help him become better at maths.

D. Daniel Tammet's talents are mostly based on his ability to memorize numbers and languages.

Question 20. Which of the following best summarizes the passage?

A. Both Daniel Tammet and Stephen Wiltshire have written books that focus on how to unlock the full potential of the brain.

B. Daniel Tammet’s ability with numbers and Stephen Wiltshire’s drawing talent are so unique that they are recognized as some of the greatest minds of the century.

C. The passage describes the lives of several artists who have overcome obstacles to become famous in their respective fields.

D. Daniel Tammet and Stephen Wiltshire are both British individuals with extraordinary abilities, showing how the human mind is capable of achieving great things.

Exercise 3.

Green Cities and Sustainable Development

As urban areas continue to expand, the need for sustainable city planning becomes more urgent. [I]. Urban planners are developing "green cities" to address the environmental challenges posed by rapid urbanization. [II]. These cities are designed to minimize environmental impact through the use of renewable energy, improved infrastructure, and efficient resource management. [III]. Solar panels, wind turbines, and energy-efficient buildings are common to reduce carbon emissions and make cities more energy-independent. [IV].

Another important aspect of green cities is the promotion of sustainable transportation. Encouraging people to use public transportation, or alternative methods like cycling, significantly reduces air pollution and traffic congestion. In addition, green spaces such as parks and gardens are integrated into urban design to provide cleaner air and recreational areas for residents. These not only enhance the quality of life but also promote biodiversity by offering a habitat for various species.

However, despite the numerous benefits, the development of green cities faces several challenges. One major obstacle is the high cost of implementing sustainable infrastructure, which can be prohibitive for many cities. Additionally, the cultural shift required to adopt greener habits—such as relying less on cars or embracing renewable energy—can be slow, as people are often resistant to change.

Despite these challenges, the potential benefits of green cities are undeniable. By investing in sustainable technologies and creating more eco-friendly urban environments, cities can improve residents' health, reduce environmental damage, and contribute to global efforts to combat climate change. Green cities represent a crucial step toward a more sustainable and resilient future for urban populations.

Question 21. Where in paragraph 1 does the following sentence best fit? “These innovations are essential for reducing the environmental impact of cities.”

A. [I]

B. [III]

C. [IV]

D. [II]

Question 22. The phrase “minimize environmental impact” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ____.

A. increase sustainability

B. protect biodiversity

C. reduce pollution

D. promote development

Question 23. The word “These” in paragraph 2 refers to ____.

A. energy sources

B. transportation methods

C. green spaces

D. urban planners

Question 24. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a benefit of green spaces?

A. They help improve air quality.

B. They offer recreational areas for residents.

C. They provide habitats for wildlife.

D. They reduce the cost of city development.

Question 25. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 3?

A. Changes in behavior, like using renewable energy or driving less, can take time because people are often hesitant to modify their routines.

B. Although people are resistant to changes in their daily lives, they are gradually adopting green habits like using renewable energy.

C. People resist changes in their habits, making it impossible to adopt greener practices like driving less or using renewable energy.

D. People are quick to adopt environmentally friendly habits, such as using renewable energy, but they find it difficult to reduce their dependence on cars.

Question 26. The word “obstacle” in paragraph 3 is OPPOSITE in meaning to ____.

A. barrier

B. difficulty

C. advantage

D. challenge

Question 27. According to the passage, what is one challenge faced by green cities?

A. They reduce job opportunities in urban areas.

B. They require the use of non-renewable energy.

C. They are designed for small populations only.

D. Sustainable infrastructure is expensive to implement.

Question 28. What can be inferred from the passage about people’s habits in green cities?

A. Changing people’s habits is one of the obstacles to building green cities.

B. People are against renewable energy in urban areas.

C. People are quickly adopting eco-friendly habits.

D. People prefer using cars over public transportation.

Question 29. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 3?

A. Sustainable infrastructure is easy to build but expensive to maintain.

B. The main challenge for green cities is convincing people to move there.

C. Cities face many challenges when trying to protect biodiversity.

D. Green cities struggle with financial and cultural challenges, despite their benefits.

Question 30. Which of the following best summarizes the passage?

A. Green cities promote biodiversity and offer more recreational spaces for residents, though they require fewer investments than traditional cities.

B. Green cities are designed to reduce the environmental impact of urban areas, but they face challenges like high costs and resistance to change.

C. Green cities are becoming the standard for urban development, but they often lack the technological advancements needed for sustainability.

D. Green cities rely entirely on renewable energy and public transportation to address environmental issues and improve urban life.

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