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Chuyên đề Đọc hiểu 8 câu tiếng Anh

Đọc hiểu đoạn văn tiếng Anh - Dạng 8 câu

Tài liệu ôn thi tốt nghiệp THPT Quốc gia 2025 môn Anh theo từng chuyên đề do VnDoc.com đăng tải giúp các em học sinh ôn tập chuyên sâu môn tiếng Anh theo từng dạng bài hiệu quả và đạt điểm tối đa trong kì thi quan trọng sắp tới.

TASK 1

Earth Hour is a global event organised by the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF). Held every year, it encourages people and businesses to turn off their lights and other unnecessary electrical devices for one hour from 8:30 p.m. to 9:30 p.m. on the last Saturday of March.
Earth Hour was started as a lights-out event in Sydney, Australia, in 2007. Since then, it has grown to become an international movement for the environment, happening in more than 7,000 cities and towns across 187 countries and territories.

Earth Hour has created a positive environmental impact. It shows the public support for protecting the environment and saving the planet. It also draws attention to climate change and global energy issues, and promotes green activities worldwide.

Viet Nam joined the event in 2009 and has been an active and keen supporter since then. Besides switching off lights, people can take part in a number of activities to raise awareness of environmental problems and call for action for climate, people and nature.

Question 1. What is the primary goal of Earth Hour?

A. To encourage people to turn off lights and unnecessary electrical devices for one hour

B. To help individuals reduce their monthly electricity bills

C. To promote the use of renewable energy sources

D. To organize global cleanup events in cities around the world

Question 2. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 2?

A. It encourages countries to shift entirely to renewable energy sources and solve climate change.

B. It pays attention to energy-efficient technologies to solve climate change.

C. It raises awareness about climate and energy concerns and encourages eco-friendly actions globally.

D. It aims to reduce energy consumption by turning off lights worldwide for one hour.

Question 3. The word “encourages” in the passage could be best replaced by _________.

A. inspires

B. stimulates

C. participates

D. obliges

Question 4. Which of the following statements about Earth Hour is NOT true?

A. Earth Hour aims to highlight climate change and energy issues.

B. Earth Hour is observed on the last Saturday of April every year.

C. Earth Hour was first held in Sydney, Australia.

D. Earth Hour has grown to include over 7,000 cities and towns worldwide.

Question 5. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to __________.

A. The lights-out event

B. The year 2007

C. Sydney, Australia

D. Earth Hour

Question 6. The word “support” in paragraph I is OPPOSITE in meaning to_______.

A. discouragement

B. encouragement

C. challenge

D. opposition

Question 7. In which paragraph the write mention positive environmental impact of Earth Hour?

A. Paragraph 1

B. Paragraph 4

C. Paragraph 3

D. Paragraph 2

Question 8. In which paragraph did Earth Hour first begin as a lights-out event?

A. Paragraph 4

B. Paragraph 2

C. Paragraph 1

D. Paragraph 3

TASK 2 

Green living refers to lifestyle choices that reduce an individual's or society's use of the Earth's natural resources. It encourages practices that are environmentally sustainable and promote conservation. Many people adopt green living principles to minimize their carbon footprint, protect the environment, and promote a healthier planet.

Simple actions can make a significant impact. For example, using energy-efficient appliances, recycling, and reducing water waste can contribute to a greener lifestyle. Additionally, choosing public transportation, biking, or walking instead of driving can decrease air pollution and reduce greenhouse gas emissions.

Moreover, supporting local and organic products can lessen the environmental impact caused by transportation and harmful farming practices . Green living also involves being mindful of one's consumption habits—purchasing only what is necessary and opting for products with minimal packaging.

Educating oneself and others about the benefits of green living can inspire communities to adopt similar practices. By making small, sustainable changes, individuals can contribute to a healthier planet for future generations.

Question 9. What actions are NOT mentioned in the passage that can contribute to green living?

A. Choosing public transportation, biking, or walking

B. Using energy-efficient appliances

C. Ignoring recycling

D. Reducing water waste

Question 10. Why do you think people choose to adopt green living practices?

A. To increase pollution

B. To spend more money

C. To impress their friends

D. To reduce their carbon footprint

Question 11. In which paragraph does the writer give definition of green living?

A. Paragraph 2

B. Paragraph 4

C. Paragraph 1

D. Paragraph 3

Question 12. The word “benefits” in paragraph 1 is OPPOSITE in meaning to ________.

A. existence

B. convenience

C. drawbacks

D. advantages

Question 13. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 3?

A. Supporting regional and organic goods encourages all farming practices without regard for the environment.

B. Promoting organic and locally produced goods minimizes environmental harm from transport and certain farming methods.

C. Promoting organic and locally produced goods reduces global demand for non-renewable resources.

D. Supporting local and organic products eliminates the need for transportation and reduces all farming practices.

Question 14. In which paragraph does the writer mention one benefit of supporting local and organic products?

A. Paragraph 1

B. Paragraph 2

C. Paragraph 4

D. Paragraph 3

Question 15. The word “significant” in the passage could be best replaced by __________.

A. necessary

B. important

C. unnoticed

D. suitable

Question 16. The word “It” in paragraph 1 refers to _________.

A. conservation

B. lifestyle

C. green living

D. the Earth

TASK 3 

There are many ways to reduce the waste we produce daily. First, instead of throwing away plastic items, such as plastic bags and bottles after a single use, we can reuse them . Even better, we can switch to reusable options, such as canvas or cloth bags, to avoid the need for plastic bags at checkout counters. Another effective alternative is replacing plastic containers with refillable glass jars and metal bottles.
When we’re on the go, it’s easy to rely heavily on plastics for convenience. However, reusing lunchboxes and cutlery whenever possible can reduce plastic waste significantly. For example, instead of taking disposable cups, we can bring our own reusable coffee cups. We can also choose straws made of metal or bamboo rather than plastic ones, which helps cut down on single-use plastics.
At home, recycling and reusing personal products can make a big difference. Simple actions, like recycling packaging and repurposing plastic items, reduce waste and encourage sustainable habits. When possible, try to choose items that can be used multiple times, extending their life and reducing the need for disposable alternatives.
Finally, if time permits, creating homemade products from waste materials can be a rewarding and eco-friendly activity. For instance, used cooking oil can be turned into homemade soap, giving a second life to something that might otherwise be discarded. Developing these habits can be both fun and educational and offers a positive impact on the environment. Making small adjustments in our daily routines can add up to significant environmental benefits over time.

Question 17. According to the passage, which of the following statements is true?

A. People should avoid using glass jars entirely.

B. Using reusable items can make a positive environmental impact.

C. Plastic products are better than household-made products.

D. Bamboo straws should be used at home only.

Question 18. The word “personal” in the passage is opposite in meaning to _________.

A. Public

B. Special

C. Individual

D. Private

Question 19. The word “them” in the passage refers to_______.

A. Plastic items, such as bags and bottles

B. Personal products

C. Glass jars and metal bottles

D. Reusable bags

Question 20. The word “homemade” in the passage could be best replaced by __________.

A. handmade

B. old-fashioned

C. expensive

D. belonging to a family

Question 21. Which of the following details is NOT mentioned in the passage?

A. Using metal bottles to replace plastic bottles

B. Reusing plastic cutlery instead of throwing it away

C. Making homemade soap from used cooking oil

D. Using bamboo straws as an alternative to plastic ones

Question 22. Which of the following best paraphrases the sentence “First, instead of throwing away plastic items, such as plastic bags and bottles after a single use, we can reuse them”?

A. Reusing plastic items like bags and bottles can reduce waste.

B. Instead of using items once, it’s better to replace them with plastic bags and bottles.

C. Plastic bags should not be reused because they are wasteful.

D. We should dispose of plastic bags and bottles instead of reusing them.

Question 23. In which paragraph does the writer mention people tend to use a lot of plastics?

A. Paragraph 2

B. Paragraph 4

C. Paragraph 3

D. Paragraph 1

Question 24. In which paragraph does the writer suggest reducing or recycling?

A. Paragraph 4

B. Paragraph 2

C. Paragraph 1

D. Paragraph 3

TASK 4

According to some Canadian news media, university students don't like to share their own cultures with each other and are not keen to learn about new ones. However, a study conducted earlier this year at the University of Winnipeg found the opposite.

Its aim was to gauge undergraduate students' attitude towards cultural identity and cultural diversity. It was influenced by the findings of a 2021 study that examined how nine dally Canadian newspapers defined the term 'multiculturalism'.

The current study included 10 undergraduate students who participated in two discussions about culture and heritage. All participants agreed on the importance of multiculturalism. Seven of them had arrived in Canada in the last 10 years from different places including the Philippines, Pakistan, and Nigeria. The students talked about where they, their parents. and their grandparents came from, discussing everything from language to festivals. religion, and traditions.

Three groups of students emerged. The first group maintained a strong connection with their heritage culture and values, and shared stories about their customs and how they made sure they didn't forget their heritage language. For example. one of them still liked listening to music in his home language. The second group felt a sense of belonging to a blend of cultures. They were exposed to different cultures when they grew up, however, they were open to and interested in experiencing other cultures through festivals and friends. The third group had experienced language and culture loss through the process of becoming Canadians. Although they were sad about that loss, they still felt enthusiastic about enriching Canadian culture and making it more diverse.

(Adapted from: Global success workbook 12)

Question 25. The word 'gauge' in paragraph 1 mostly means __________

A. discuss

B. compare

C. highlight

D. judge

Question 26. The word 'them' in paragraph 2 refers to _____

A. the university researchers

B. the places students came from

C. the study participants

D. the findings of the study

Question 27. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about the study?

A. Not all students could speak the language of their parents or grandparents.

B. Some participants felt they were part of blended culture since they had experienced different cultures in their childhood.

C. In the process of becoming Canadians, all participants forgot their heritage language.

D. The participants talked about different aspects of their heritage culture.

Question 28. How did one of the participants maintain his native language?

A. By talking to friends and family.

B. By listening to songs in that language.

C. By going to music festivals.

D. By sharing stories about family traditions.

Question 29. The word “blend” in the passage is OPPOSITE in meaning to _____:

A. confusion

B. conflict

C. addition

D. split

Question 30. Which of the following best paraphrases the given sentence “All participants agreed on the importance of multiculturalism”?

A. Every participant recognized the value of multiculturalism.

B. The participants were indifferent

to multiculturalism.

C. Not all participants were aware of multiculturalism's significance.

D. Some participants disagreed with the idea of multiculturalism.

Question 31. In which paragraph does the writer mention the number of students who participated in the study?

A. Paragraph 2

B. Paragraph 4

C. Paragraph 3

D. Paragraph 1

Question 32. In which paragraph does the writer describe the three groups of students and their attitudes toward cultural identity?

A. Paragraph 1

B. Paragraph 4

C. Paragraph 3

D. Paragraph 2

TASK 5

How to find a summer job? A guide for high school students

If you're currently in secondary school you may be interested in getting a job during your summer break. However, you may not know how to find a summer job. Here is some useful advice for you.

Firstly, you should find out when your school will close for the summer. Then you should plan to apply for jobs two to three months before the start of your summer break. This can help ensure that you have a job already lined up when summer arrives. After that you need to learn about the types of jobs that are available. For example, find out whether there are full-time or part-time jobs, and whether they require previous experience or training so that you can feel confident about applying.

Secondly, you should prepare an application letter for the job you want to apply for. In the letter, you should explain why you want the job and provide more details about the experiences or skills listed on your CV. You may have to change each application letter for every specific job to increase your chances of moving further in the hiring process. For example, your application letter for a shop assistant may highlight different qualifications than the one for a home tutor to a young child

Lastly, you should prepare for the job interview. If an employer is interested in hiring you, they may ask you for an interview. Before the interview, prepare for some questions that the interviewer is likely to ask you, such as why you want the position and what relevant skills you have. On the day of the interview, bring printed copies of your CV and application letter in case the employer wants to review them. You should also wear a professional outfit and try to be positive and friendly during your interview.

(Adapted from: Global success workbook 12)

Question 33. The phrase ‘lined up’ in paragraph 2 is OPPOSITE in meaning to ______.

A. engaged

B. occupied

C. prepared

D. unorganized

Question 34. The word 'one' in paragraph 3 refers to ______

A. home tutor

B. shop assistant

C. application letter

D. young child

Question 35. The word 'outfit' in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to

A. fitness

B. clothes

C. accessories

D. uniform

Question 36. According to the passage, information about summer jobs _________

A. can be obtained easily on the Internet

B. should be gathered before the holiday starts

C. can be shared widely among applicants

D. should be kept secret during the application process

Question 37. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?

A. They should demonstrate their skills and experiences as much as they can.

B. They should think of possible questions that they may be asked in the interview.

C. They should avoid questions related to wages and salaries.

D. They should wear casual clothes when coming for an interview.

Question 38. Which of the following best paraphrases the given sentence “In the letter, you should explain why you want the job and provide more details about the experiences or skills listed on your CV”?

A. Your letter should state your reasons for applying and elaborate on your qualifications.

B. The letter should focus on the company’s requirements and how you meet them.

C. You need to mention your hobbies and interests in the letter.

D. The letter must include your work history and summarize your skills.

Question 39. In which paragraph does the writer suggest when to start applying for a summer job?

A. Paragraph 3

B. Paragraph 1

C. Paragraph 4

D. Paragraph 2

Question 40. In which paragraph does the writer discuss the importance of preparing for a job interview?

A. Paragraph 2

B. Paragraph 4

C. Paragraph 3

D. Paragraph 1

TASK 6

VO THI SAU HEROINE

Vo Thi Sau was born in 1933 in Ba Ria - Vung Tau province. She wasn’t even a teenager when Ho Chi Minh declared independence from France on September 2, 1945. Swept in the fervor of anti-colonial resistance, Vo Thi Sau joined a local guerilla unit. By the age of 14, Sau was already a staunch militant and she proved this by throwing a grenade at a group of French soldiers, killing one and injuring at least a dozen.

Two years later, Vo Thi Sau attempted another grenade strike, but this time, she was arrested before any more French bodie s were blown into bits. Like many fighters before her and after her, she was sentenced to death via firing squad.

On January 23, 1952, Vo Thi Sau spent the last minutes of her life singing. She refused to be blindfolded as they tied her to a stake and song still flowed from her mouth—until it was silenced by the sound of bullets. She was 19…

Vo Thi Sau is currently interred at Con Dao Island but this place has changed a lot since her time. What used to be a final destination has now become a tourist destination.
Each year, thousands of people visit Vo Thi Sau’s grave. They bring with them fresh cut flowers and incense sticks to pay homage to a heroine who rebelled until the very end. Although she’s no longer singing, her name can be heard in Vietnamese songs celebrating her life and bravery.

(Adapted from: Global success workbook 12)

Question 41. The word "resistance" in the 1st paragraph is closest in meaning to_________.

A. enemy

B. attack

C. fight

D. military

Question 42. The word "one" in the 1st paragraph refers to _________.

A. a French

B. a grenade

C. a group

D. a soldier

Question 43. The word "bravery" in the final paragraph is opposite in meaning to_________.

A. fear

B. devotion

C. youth

D. hero

Question 44. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?

A. Vo Thi Sau attempted the second grenade strike, but she did not succeed.

B. Con Dao Island is the place where Vo Thi Sau’s grave is located right now.

C. Vo Thi Sau wasn’t an adolescence when Vietnam was declared independence from France.

D. Annually, Vo Thi Sau’s grave is visited by thousands of foreigner visitors.

Question 45. How did Vo Thi Sau spend her last moments?

A. She sang and refused a blindfold.

B. She silently awaited her fate.

C. She attempted to escape

.D. She wrote a letter to her family.

Question 46. Which of the following best paraphrases the given sentence “Like many fighters before her and after her, she was sentenced to death via firing squad”?

A. She was executed by firing squad, similar to many fighters who came before and after her.

B. Many fighters who were sentenced to death chose the firing squad method.C. She was the

first fighter to be sentenced to death by firing squad.

D. Unlike other fighters, she faced execution by firing squad.

Question 47. In which paragraph does the writer discuss Vo Thi Sau's arrest and sentencing?

A. Paragraph 2

B. Paragraph 1

C. Paragraph 3

D. Paragraph 4

Question 48. In which paragraph does the writer mention the change in the status of Con Dao Island?

A. Paragraph 1

B. Paragraph 3

C. Paragraph 2

D. Paragraph 4

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