Chuyên đề Đọc hiểu 8 câu tiếng Anh

Tài liệu ôn thi tốt nghiệp THPT Quốc gia 2025 môn Anh theo từng chuyên đề do VnDoc.com đăng tải giúp các em học sinh ôn tập chuyên sâu môn tiếng Anh theo từng dạng bài hiệu quả và đạt điểm tối đa trong kì thi quan trọng sắp tới.

Bộ câu hỏi đọc hiểu đoạn văn dạng 8 câu - Đề số 1

TASK 1

According to some Canadian news media, university students don't like to share their own cultures with each other and are not keen to learn about new ones. However, a study conducted earlier this year at the University of Winnipeg found the opposite.
Its aim was to gauge undergraduate students' attitude towards cultural identity and cultural diversity. It was influenced by the findings of a 2021 study that examined how nine dally Canadian newspapers defined the term 'multiculturalism'.

The current study included 10 undergraduate students who participated in two discussions about culture and heritage. All participants agreed on the importance of multiculturalism . Seven of them had arrived in Canada in the last 10 years from different places including the Philippines, Pakistan, and Nigeria. The students talked about where they, their parents. and their grandparents came from, discussing everything from language to festivals. religion, and traditions.

Three groups of students emerged . The first group maintained a strong connection with their heritage culture and values, and shared stories about their customs and how they made sure they didn't forget their heritage language. For example. one of them still liked listening to music in his home language. The second group felt a sense of belonging to a blend of cultures. They were exposed to different cultures when they grew up, however, they were open to and interested in experiencing other cultures through festivals and friends. The third group had experienced language and culture loss through the process of becoming Canadians. Although they were sad about that loss, they still felt enthusiastic about enriching Canadian culture and making it more diverse.

(Adapted from: Global success workbook 12)

Question 1. The word 'gauge' in paragraph 1 mostly means __________

A. compare

B. discuss

C. highlight

D. judge

Question 2. The word 'them' in paragraph 2 refers to _____

A. the study participants

B. the university researchers

C. the findings of the study

D. the places students came from

Question 3. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about the study?

A. Some participants felt they were part of blended culture since they had experienced different cultures in their childhood.

B. The participants talked about different aspects of their heritage culture.

C. Not all students could speak the language of their parents or grandparents.

D. In the process of becoming Canadians, all participants forgot their heritage language.

Question 4. How did one of the participants maintain his native language?

A. By going to music festivals.

B. By talking to friends and family.

C. By listening to songs in that language.

D. By sharing stories about family traditions.

Question 5. The word “blend” in the passage is OPPOSITE in meaning to _____:

A. addition

B. split

C. confusion

D. conflict

Question 6. Which of the following best paraphrases the given sentence “All participants agreed on the importance of multiculturalism”?

A. Not all participants were aware of multiculturalism's significance.

B. Some participants disagreed with the idea of multiculturalism.

C. The participants were indifferent to multiculturalism.

D. Every participant recognized the value of multiculturalism.

Question 7. In which paragraph does the writer mention the number of students who participated in the study?

A. Paragraph 3

B. Paragraph 1

C. Paragraph 4

D. Paragraph 2

Question 8. In which paragraph does the writer describe the three groups of students and their attitudes toward cultural identity?

A. Paragraph 4
B. Paragraph 1

C. Paragraph 2

D. Paragraph 3

TASK 2

How to find a summer job? A guide for high school students

If you're currently in secondary school you may be interested in getting a job during your summer break. However, you may not know how to find a summer job. Here is some useful advice for you.

Firstly, you should find out when your school will close for the summer. Then you should plan to apply for jobs two to three months before the start of your summer break. This can help ensure that you have a job already lined up when summer arrives. After that you need to learn about the types of jobs that are available. For example, find out whether there are full-time or part-time jobs, and whether they require previous experience or training so that you can feel confident about applying.

Secondly, you should prepare an application letter for the job you want to apply for. In the letter, you should explain why you want the job and provide more details about the experiences or skills listed on your CV. You may have to change each application letter for every specific job to increase your chances of moving further in the hiring process. For example, your a pplication letter for a shop assistant may highlight different qualifications than the one for a home tutor to a young child

Lastly, you should prepare for the job interview. If an employer is interested in hiring you, they may ask you for an interview. Before the interview, prepare for some questions that the interviewer is likely to ask you, such as why you want the position and what relevant skills you have. On the day of the interview, bring printed copies of your CV and application letter in case the employer wants to review them. You should also wear a professional outfit and try to be positive and friendly during your interview.

(Adapted from: Global success workbook 12)

Question 9. The phrase ‘lined up’ in paragraph 2 is OPPOSITE in meaning to ______.

A. prepared

B. engaged

C. occupied

D. unorganized

Question 10. The word 'one' in paragraph 3 refers to ______

A. shop assistant

B. young child

C. application letter

D. home tutor

Question 11. The word 'outfit' in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to

A. clothes

B. accessories

C. uniform

D. fitness

Question 12. According to the passage, information about summer jobs _________

A. should be gathered before the holiday starts

B. can be obtained easily on the Internet

C. can be shared widely among applicants

D. should be kept secret during the application process

Question 13. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?

A. They should avoid questions related to wages and salaries.

B. They should wear casual clothes when coming for an interview.

C. They should demonstrate their skills and experiences as much as they can.

D. They should think of possible questions that they may be asked in the interview.

Question 14. Which of the following best paraphrases the given sentence “In the letter, you should explain why you want the job and provide more details about the experiences or skills listed on your CV”?

A. You need to mention your hobbies and interests in the letter.

B. The letter should focus on the company’s requirements and how you meet them.

C. Your letter should state your reasons for applying and elaborate on your qualifications.

D. The letter must include your work history and summarize your skills.

Question 15. In which paragraph does the writer suggest when to start applying for a summer job?

A. Paragraph 2

B. Paragraph 3

C. Paragraph 4

D. Paragraph 1

Question 16. In which paragraph does the writer discuss the importance of preparing for a job interview?

A. Paragraph 2

B. Paragraph 1

C. Paragraph 4

D. Paragraph 3

TASK 3

VO THI SAU HEROINE

Vo Thi Sau was born in 1933 in Ba Ria - Vung Tau province. She wasn’t even a teenager when Ho Chi Minh declared independence from France on September 2, 1945. Swept in the fervor of anti-colonial resistance , Vo Thi Sau joined a local guerilla unit. By the age of 14, Sau was already a staunch militant and she proved this by throwing a grenade at a group of French soldiers, killing one and injuring at least a dozen.

Two years later, Vo Thi Sau attempted another grenade strike, but this time, she was arrested before any more French bodies were blown into bits. Like many fighters before her and after her, she was sentenced to death via firing squad.

On January 23, 1952, Vo Thi Sau spent the last minutes of her life singing. She refused to be blindfolded as they tied her to a stake and song still flowed from her mouth—until it was silenced by the sound of bullets. She was 19…

Vo Thi Sau is currently interred at Con Dao Island but this place has changed a lot since her time. What used to be a final destination has now become a tourist destination.

Each year, thousands of people visit Vo Thi Sau’s grave. They bring with them fresh cut flowers and incense sticks to pay homage to a heroine who rebelled until the very end. Although she’s no longer singing, her name can be heard in Vietnamese songs celebrating her life and bravery .

(Adapted from: Global success workbook 12)

Question 17. The word "resistance" in the 1st paragraph is closest in meaning to_________.

A. attack

B. fight

C. military

D. enemy

Question 18. The word "one" in the 1st paragraph refers to _________.

A. a grenade

B. a French

C. a group

D. a soldier

Question 19. The word "bravery" in the final paragraph is opposite in meaning to_________.

A. youth

B. devotion

C. hero

D. fear

Question 20. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?

A. Annually, Vo Thi Sau’s grave is visited by thousands of foreigner visitors.

B. Vo Thi Sau attempted the second grenade strike, but she did not succeed.

C. Vo Thi Sau wasn’t an adolescence when Vietnam was declared independence from France.

D. Con Dao Island is the place where Vo Thi Sau’s grave is located right now.

Question 21. How did Vo Thi Sau spend her last moments?

A. She sang and refused a blindfold.

B. She attempted to escape.

C. She silently awaited her fate.

D. She wrote a letter to her family.

Question 22. Which of the following best paraphrases the given sentence “Like many fighters before her and after her, she was sentenced to death via firing squad”?

A. Unlike other fighters, she faced execution by firing squad.

B. Many fighters who were sentenced to death chose the firing squad method.

C. She was the first fighter to be sentenced to death by firing squad.

D. She was executed by firing squad, similar to many fighters who came before and after her.

Question 23. In which paragraph does the writer discuss Vo Thi Sau's arrest and sentencing?

A. Paragraph 1

B. Paragraph 2

C. Paragraph 4

D. Paragraph 3

Question 24. In which paragraph does the writer mention the change in the status of Con Dao Island?

A. Paragraph 2

B. Paragraph 3

C. Paragraph 4

D. Paragraph 1

Bộ câu hỏi đọc hiểu đoạn văn dạng 8 câu - Đề số 2

PASSAGE 1: Read the following passage about endangered languages and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 1 to 8.

Robot in Healthcare

There are several types of medical robots these days. They are changing the ways that doctors perform surgeries. They also help with keeping hospitals clean, making sure hospitals get the supplies they need and looking after patients. The first medical robots were robotic arms that assisted surgeons during operations.

Nowadays, robots do so much more. The Da Vinci robot helps surgeons perform minimally invasive surgeries. This means they do not cut through muscles and leave tiny scars. The MAKO robot specialises in assisting with surgeries for artificial knees. Other medical robots help people with disabilities. HAL (Hybrid Assistive Limb) is a robotic suit that helps people walk after an injury that has left them unable to move their arms, legs or spine. Hospital robots such as TUG help to deliver medicines and other materials around a hospital. It can find its way around using its built-in maps and sensors.

Moreover, it uses Wi-Fi to communicate with lifts, automatic doom and alarms. Another example of hospital robots is Xenex, currently used in over 1,000 hospitals. It cleans rooms, equipment and devices in under 20 minutes using Xenon light. Care robots or HSRs (Human Support Robots) help elderly and disabled patients to get in and out of bed or a wheelchair. Some remind patients when to take their medicine, and a few even provide support and act as a companion for lonely people.

There are likely to be more of these types of robots in the future. Care robots can also help nurses by taking over tasks such as taking patients' blood samples and temperatures and assisting patients in bathing. Thanks to these robots, nurses can spend their time giving more personalised care to patients. In short, robots are here to stay and they are making a big difference, especially in healthcare.

(Adapt from sgk Bright 12 )

Question 1. Which of the following is NOT mentioned about hospital robots according to the passage?

A. Robots assist surgeons with medical procedures.

B. Robots perform all surgeries without human help.

C. Robots help deliver medicines and materials around hospitals.

D. Robots clean hospital rooms using special light.

Question 2. Which word is CLOSEST in meaning to 'invasive'?

A. Safe

B. Intrusive

C. Gentle

D. Unnecessary

Question 3. Which of the following is the OPPOSITE of 'automatic'?

A. manual

B. modern

C. fast

D. efficient

Question 4. What does 'It' refer to in the sentence?

A. Xenex robot

B. MAKO robot

C. TUG robot

D. HAL robot

Question 5. Which of the following is a paraphrase of the sentence: "Care robots or HSRs (Human Support Robots) help elderly and disabled patients to get in and out of bed or a wheelchair. Some remind patients when to take their medicine, and a few even provide support and act as a companion for lonely people."?

A. Human Support Robots are only used to remind patients to take their medicine.

B. Care robots are used for household chores and do not interact with patients.

C. Care robots help patients with mobility problems and provide emotional support.

D. Care robots are mainly designed for personal hygiene tasks.

Question 6. What is the primary function of the Da Vinci robot?

A. To clean rooms in hospitals

B. To assist with surgeries for artificial knees

C. To perform minimally invasive surgeries

D. To help elderly patients get out of bed

Question 7. In which paragraph does the writer mention types of robots are being used in hospitals to assist with tasks such as cleaning, patient mobility, and providing companionship.?

A. Paragraph 3

B. Paragraph 4

C. Paragraph 2

D. Paragraph 1

Question 8. In which paragraph does the writer mention care robots will take over routine tasks?

A. Paragraph 4

B. Paragraph 2

C. Paragraph 1

D. Paragraph 3

PASSAGE 2: Read the passage and choose A,B,C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Birds that feed in flocks commonly retire together into roosts. The reason for roosting communally are not always obvious, but there are some likely benefits. In winter especially, it is important for birds to keep warm at night and conserve precious food reserves. One way to do this is to find a sheltered roost.

Solitary roosters shelter in dense vegetation or enter a cavity- horned larks dig holes in the ground and ptarmigan burrow into snow banks-but the effect of sheltering is magnified by several birds huddling together in the roosts, as wrens, swifts, brown creepers, bluebirds, and ants do. Body contact reduces the surface area exposed to the cold air, so the birds keep each other warm. Two kinglets huddling together were found to reduce their heat losses by a quarter, and three other saved a third of their heat.

The second possible benefit of communal roosts is that the act as “information centers.” During the day, parties of birds will have spread out to forage over a very large area. When they return in the evening some will fed well, but others may have found little to eat. Some investigators have observed that when the birds set out again next morning, those birds that did not feed well on the previous day appear to follow those that did. The behavior of common and lesser kestrels may illustrate different feeding behaviors of similar birds with different roosting habits. The common kestrel hunts vertebrate animals in a small, familiar hunting ground, whereas the very similar lesser kestrel feeds on insects over a large area. The common kestrel roosts and hunts alone, but the lesser kestrel roosts and hunts in flocks, possibly so one bird can learn from others where to find insect swarms.

Finally, there is safety in numbers at communal roosts since there will always be a few birds awake at any given moment to give the alarm. But this increased protection is partially counteracted by the fact that mass roosts attract predators and are especially vulnerable if they are on the ground. Even those in trees can be attacked by birds of prey. The birds on the edge are at greatest risk since predators find it easier to catch small birds perching at the margins of the roost.

Question 9. The word “conserve” in line 3 is CLOSEST in meaning to

A. locate

B. share

C. watch

D. retain

Question 10. What does 'they' refer to in the sentence?

A. party of birds

B. information centers

C. large area

D. communal roosts

Question 11. The word “magnified” is OPPOSITE in meaning to

A. boosted

B. amplified

C. minimized

D. intensified

Question 12. Which of the following statements about lesser and common kestrels is true?

A. The common kestrel nests in large flocks than does the lesser kestrel.

B. The lesser kestrel feeds sociably, but the common kestrel does not.

C. The common kestrel nests in trees: the lesser kestrel nests on the ground.

D. The lesser kestrel and common kestrel have similar diets.

Question 13. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as an advantage derived by birds that huddle together while sleeping?

A. Some birds in the flock function as information centers for others who are looking for food.

B. Some members of the flock warn others of impending dangers.

C. Staying together provides a greater amount of heat for the whole flock.

D. Several members of the flock care for the young.

Question 14. Which of the following is a paraphrase of the sentence: "Finally, there is safety in numbers at communal roosts since there will always be a few birds awake at any given moment to give the alarm."

A. Communal roosts are safe because birds take turns sleeping and guarding against danger.

B. Birds at communal roosts tend to sleep deeply, relying on others to wake them up in case of danger.

C. Birds in communal roosts do not sleep, which makes them more aware of potential dangers.

D. There are fewer threats at communal roosts because all the birds stay awake to watch for predators.

Question 15. In which paragraph does the writer mention birds shelter together to stay warm?

A. Paragraph 3

B. Paragraph 1

C. Paragraph 2

D. Paragraph 4

Question 16. In which paragraph does the writer mention another benefit of communal roosting?

A. Paragraph 1

B. Paragraph 2

C. Paragraph 4

D. Paragraph 3

PASSAGE 3: Read the text below and choose the best answer (A,B,C or D) to each question.

In Death Valley, California, one of the hottest, most arid places in North America, there is much salt, and salt can damage rocks impressively. Inhabitants of areas elsewhere, where streets and highways are salted to control ice, are familiar with the resulting rust and deterioration on cars. That attests to the chemically corrosive nature of salt, but it is not the way salt destroys rocks. Salt breaks rocks apart principally by a process called crystal prying and wedging. This happens not by soaking the rocks in salt water, but by moistening their bottoms with salt water. Such conditions exist in many areas along the eastern edge of central Death Valley. There, salty water rises from the groundwater table by capillary action through tiny spaces in sediment until it reaches the surface.

Most stones have capillary passages that suck salt water from the wet ground . Death Valley provides an ultra-dry atmosphere and high daily temperatures, which promote evaporation and the formation of salt crystals along the cracks or other openings within stones. These crystals grow as long as salt water is available. Like tree roots breaking up a sidewalk, the growing crystals exert pressure on the rock and eventually pry the rock apart along planes of weakness, such as banding in metamorphic rocks, bedding in sedimentary rocks, or preexisting or incipient fractions, and along boundaries between individual mineral crystals or grains. Besides crystal growth, the expansion of halite crystals (the same as everyday table salt) by heating and of sulfates and similar salts by hydration can contribute additional stresses. A rock durable enough to have withstood natural conditions for a very long time in other areas could probably be shattered into small pieces by salt weathering within a few generations.
The dominant salt in Death Valley is halite, or sodium chloride, but other salts, mostly carbonates and sulfates, also cause prying and wedging, as does ordinary ice. Weathering by a variety of salts, though often subtle, is a worldwide phenomenon. Not restricted to arid regions, intense salt weathering occurs mostly in salt-rich places like the seashore, near the large saline lakes in the Dry Valleys of Antarctica, and in desert sections of Australia, New Zealand, and central Asia.

Question 17. What types of plants or animals are NOT found in Death Valley?

A. Bighorn sheep and yucca plants

B. Cacti and desert tortoises

C. Roadrunners and scorpions

D. Polar bears and pine trees

Question 18. The word "it" in line 9 refers to _________

A. capillary action

B. sediment

C. groundwater table

D. salty water

Question 19. The word "exert" in line 14 is OPPOSITE in meaning to ________

A. Engage

B. Struggle

C. Push

D. Idle

Question 20. The word "shattered" in line 20 is CLOSEST in meaning to ________

A. arranged

B. dissolved

C. gathered together

D. broken apart

Question 21. Which sentence is a paraphrase of: "Most stones have capillary passages that suck salt water from the wet ground."

A. Stones have large pores that let water pass through them easily.

B. Most stones contain tiny channels that absorb salt water from the damp soil.

C. Most stones absorb salt from the air when exposed to humidity.

D. Most stones store water in their capillary spaces to maintain moisture.

Question 22. According to the passage, which of the following is true about the effects of salts on rocks?

A. Only two types of salts cause prying and wedging.

B. Salt damage at the seashore is more severe than salt damage in Death Valley.

C. A variety of salts in all kinds of environments can cause weathering.

D. Salts usually cause damage only in combination with ice.

Question 23. In which paragraph does the writer mention salt weathering, caused by various salts?

A. Paragraph 2

B. Paragraph 3

C. Paragraph 1

D. Paragraph 4

Question 24. In which paragraph does the writer mention a process called crystal?

A. Paragraph 2

B. Paragraph 1

C. Paragraph 3

D. Paragraph 4

Bộ câu hỏi đọc hiểu đoạn văn dạng 8 câu - Đề số 3

TASK 1

Earth Hour is a global event organised by the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF). Held every year, it encourages people and businesses to turn off their lights and other unnecessary electrical devices for one hour from 8:30 p.m. to 9:30 p.m. on the last Saturday of March.
Earth Hour was started as a lights-out event in Sydney, Australia, in 2007. Since then, it has grown to become an international movement for the environment, happening in more than 7,000 cities and towns across 187 countries and territories.

Earth Hour has created a positive environmental impact. It shows the public support for protecting the environment and saving the planet. It also draws attention to climate change and global energy issues, and promotes green activities worldwide.

Viet Nam joined the event in 2009 and has been an active and keen supporter since then. Besides switching off lights, people can take part in a number of activities to raise awareness of environmental problems and call for action for climate, people and nature.

Question 1. What is the primary goal of Earth Hour?

A. To encourage people to turn off lights and unnecessary electrical devices for one hour

B. To help individuals reduce their monthly electricity bills

C. To promote the use of renewable energy sources

D. To organize global cleanup events in cities around the world

Question 2. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 2?

A. It encourages countries to shift entirely to renewable energy sources and solve climate change.

B. It pays attention to energy-efficient technologies to solve climate change.

C. It raises awareness about climate and energy concerns and encourages eco-friendly actions globally.

D. It aims to reduce energy consumption by turning off lights worldwide for one hour.

Question 3. The word “encourages” in the passage could be best replaced by _________.

A. inspires

B. stimulates

C. participates

D. obliges

Question 4. Which of the following statements about Earth Hour is NOT true?

A. Earth Hour aims to highlight climate change and energy issues.

B. Earth Hour is observed on the last Saturday of April every year.

C. Earth Hour was first held in Sydney, Australia.

D. Earth Hour has grown to include over 7,000 cities and towns worldwide.

Question 5. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to __________.

A. The lights-out event

B. The year 2007

C. Sydney, Australia

D. Earth Hour

Question 6. The word “support” in paragraph I is OPPOSITE in meaning to_______.

A. discouragement

B. encouragement

C. challenge

D. opposition

Question 7. In which paragraph the write mention positive environmental impact of Earth Hour?

A. Paragraph 1

B. Paragraph 4

C. Paragraph 3

D. Paragraph 2

Question 8. In which paragraph did Earth Hour first begin as a lights-out event?

A. Paragraph 4

B. Paragraph 2

C. Paragraph 1

D. Paragraph 3

TASK 2

Green living refers to lifestyle choices that reduce an individual's or society's use of the Earth's natural resources. It encourages practices that are environmentally sustainable and promote conservation. Many people adopt green living principles to minimize their carbon footprint, protect the environment, and promote a healthier planet.

Simple actions can make a significant impact. For example, using energy-efficient appliances, recycling, and reducing water waste can contribute to a greener lifestyle. Additionally, choosing public transportation, biking, or walking instead of driving can decrease air pollution and reduce greenhouse gas emissions.

Moreover, supporting local and organic products can lessen the environmental impact caused by transportation and harmful farming practices . Green living also involves being mindful of one's consumption habits—purchasing only what is necessary and opting for products with minimal packaging.

Educating oneself and others about the benefits of green living can inspire communities to adopt similar practices. By making small, sustainable changes, individuals can contribute to a healthier planet for future generations.

Question 9. What actions are NOT mentioned in the passage that can contribute to green living?

A. Choosing public transportation, biking, or walking

B. Using energy-efficient appliances

C. Ignoring recycling

D. Reducing water waste

Question 10. Why do you think people choose to adopt green living practices?

A. To increase pollution

B. To spend more money

C. To impress their friends

D. To reduce their carbon footprint

Question 11. In which paragraph does the writer give definition of green living?

A. Paragraph 2

B. Paragraph 4

C. Paragraph 1

D. Paragraph 3

Question 12. The word “benefits” in paragraph 1 is OPPOSITE in meaning to ________.

A. existence

B. convenience

C. drawbacks

D. advantages

Question 13. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 3?

A. Supporting regional and organic goods encourages all farming practices without regard for the environment.

B. Promoting organic and locally produced goods minimizes environmental harm from transport and certain farming methods.

C. Promoting organic and locally produced goods reduces global demand for non-renewable resources.

D. Supporting local and organic products eliminates the need for transportation and reduces all farming practices.

Question 14. In which paragraph does the writer mention one benefit of supporting local and organic products?

A. Paragraph 1

B. Paragraph 2

C. Paragraph 4

D. Paragraph 3

Question 15. The word “significant” in the passage could be best replaced by __________.

A. necessary

B. important

C. unnoticed

D. suitable

Question 16. The word “It” in paragraph 1 refers to _________.

A. conservation

B. lifestyle

C. green living

D. the Earth

TASK 3

There are many ways to reduce the waste we produce daily. First, instead of throwing away plastic items, such as plastic bags and bottles after a single use, we can reuse them . Even better, we can switch to reusable options, such as canvas or cloth bags, to avoid the need for plastic bags at checkout counters. Another effective alternative is replacing plastic containers with refillable glass jars and metal bottles.
When we’re on the go, it’s easy to rely heavily on plastics for convenience. However, reusing lunchboxes and cutlery whenever possible can reduce plastic waste significantly. For example, instead of taking disposable cups, we can bring our own reusable coffee cups. We can also choose straws made of metal or bamboo rather than plastic ones, which helps cut down on single-use plastics.
At home, recycling and reusing personal products can make a big difference. Simple actions, like recycling packaging and repurposing plastic items, reduce waste and encourage sustainable habits. When possible, try to choose items that can be used multiple times, extending their life and reducing the need for disposable alternatives.
Finally, if time permits, creating homemade products from waste materials can be a rewarding and eco-friendly activity. For instance, used cooking oil can be turned into homemade soap, giving a second life to something that might otherwise be discarded. Developing these habits can be both fun and educational and offers a positive impact on the environment. Making small adjustments in our daily routines can add up to significant environmental benefits over time.

Question 17. According to the passage, which of the following statements is true?

A. People should avoid using glass jars entirely.

B. Using reusable items can make a positive environmental impact.

C. Plastic products are better than household-made products.

D. Bamboo straws should be used at home only.

Question 18. The word “personal” in the passage is opposite in meaning to _________.

A. Public

B. Special

C. Individual

D. Private

Question 19. The word “them” in the passage refers to_______.

A. Plastic items, such as bags and bottles

B. Personal products

C. Glass jars and metal bottles

D. Reusable bags

Question 20. The word “homemade” in the passage could be best replaced by __________.

A. handmade

B. old-fashioned

C. expensive

D. belonging to a family

Question 21. Which of the following details is NOT mentioned in the passage?

A. Using metal bottles to replace plastic bottles

B. Reusing plastic cutlery instead of throwing it away

C. Making homemade soap from used cooking oil

D. Using bamboo straws as an alternative to plastic ones

Question 22. Which of the following best paraphrases the sentence “First, instead of throwing away plastic items, such as plastic bags and bottles after a single use, we can reuse them”?

A. Reusing plastic items like bags and bottles can reduce waste.

B. Instead of using items once, it’s better to replace them with plastic bags and bottles.

C. Plastic bags should not be reused because they are wasteful.

D. We should dispose of plastic bags and bottles instead of reusing them.

Question 23. In which paragraph does the writer mention people tend to use a lot of plastics?

A. Paragraph 2

B. Paragraph 4

C. Paragraph 3

D. Paragraph 1

Question 24. In which paragraph does the writer suggest reducing or recycling?

A. Paragraph 4

B. Paragraph 2

C. Paragraph 1

D. Paragraph 3

Bộ câu hỏi đọc hiểu đoạn văn dạng 8 câu - Đề số 4

READING 1: FRIENDS GLOBAL: 12 SBT: UNIT 1: RELATIONSHIPS

[A] Although couples will rarely believe it, scientific factors have a lot to do with falling in love. Research has shown that scent plays an important role in choosing a mate. Other experiments have demonstrated that love is caused by combinations of chemicals in the brain. Furthermore, New York psychologist Arthur Aron applied the principles of science to demonstrate that the process of falling in love could be speeded up... to just 45 minutes!

[B] Some scientists claim that we take between ninety seconds and four minutes to decide if we fancy someone. However, the leap from being attracted to someone to falling in love with them is a big one , and Aron wanted to find out if the closeness associated with feelings of being in love could be created artificially.

[C] Aron produced a paper that included 36 questions designed to encourage intimacy if couples answered them together. The questions came in three sets with each set covering increasingly intimate ground. They covered many personal opinions and experiences; for example, 'Would you like to be famous?", 'What does friendship mean to you?" and 'When did you last cry in front of another person?" After answering the questions together, the couples were directed to stare into each other's eyes for four minutes without saying anything.

[D] Aron tested his questions on pairs of strangers and then asked them to stare at each other. All of the participants reported feeling close to their partners and many of them swapped contact details after the experiment. So if you're keen on someone and would like to get closer to them, it would seem that Aron's questions could help you to achieve your objective.

Question 1. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?

A. The relationship between scent and attraction

B. The percentage of couples who fell in love through Aron's experiment

C. The time it takes for someone to feel attracted to another person

D. The questions asked by Aron during the experiment

Question 2. The word "encourage" in Paragraph C is opposite in meaning to _______

A. Inspire

B. Discourage

C. Influence

D. Support

Question 3. In Paragraph D, the word "them" refer to _______

A. The psychologist and his team

B. The experiment results

C. The participants

D. Aron's questions

Question 4. The word “closeness” in Paragraph B could be best replaced by ______

A. Attraction

B. Proximity

C. Distance

D. Intimacy

Question 5. Which of the following best paraphrases the sentence from Paragraph B: "the leap from being attracted to someone to falling in love with them is a big one"?

A. There’s a significant difference between feeling attracted to someone and actually falling in love.

B. Falling in love with someone requires time and patience.

C. People often mistake attraction for love, but they are the same.

D. Attraction is not as important as love in relationships.

Question 6. According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. The experiment took 90 minutes to complete.

B. Aron's experiment requires two people to stare at each other for several minutes.

C. All of Aron's participants immediately fell in love with each other.

D. Couples must answer 40 questions in Aron's experiment.

Question 7. In which paragraph does the write mention the information about "how quickly we decide if we are attracted to someone"?

A. Paragraph C

B. Paragraph D

C. Paragraph A

D. Paragraph B

Question 8. In which paragraph does the writer mention the 36 questions used in Aron's experiment?

A. Paragraph B

B. Paragraph C

C. Paragraph D

D. Paragraph A

READING 2: LHTRI 2018 TEST 11

There are a lot of myths about the human brain. We are going to tell you a little about these myths, and we are also going to give you the truth.

Once of the biggest myth is that we only use 10 percent of our brains. The next part of that myth is that it we can learn to use the rest of our brains, then we will be much smarter. People say this all the time, but it is absolutely not true. The truth is that although we don’t know everything about the human brain, we know that each part of it has an important function . Modem scientists call the “10 percent myth" ridiculous .

The other most popular myth is about being “right brained" or "left brained". According to this myth, people who use the right side of their brains tend to be more artistic and creative, people who use the led side of their brains lend to be better at maths and science. This myth is as popular as the 10 percent myth, and it is also wrong. In 2013, a study at an American university examined the right brain and left brain myth. According to the study, we use both sides of our brains equally.

It is true that we use different parts of our brains for different things: We use our left side for language more, and our right side when we need to pay attention. But there is no evidence that creative people use the right side more, or that scientific people use the left side more.
We have talked about myths, so let’s look at a few interesting facts about the brain. First of all, the brain feels no pain. Second, about 75 percent of the brain is made of water. It is also the fattest organ in your body. Another interesting fact about the brain is that around the time you turn 18 years old, it stops growing.

Question 9. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?

A. The left side of the brain is associated with language functions.

B. The human brain stops growing around the age of 18.

C. Scientists agree that each part of the brain has an important function.

D. The brain consumes a significant amount of the body’s total energy.

Question 10. The word “myth” in paragraph 2 is opposite in meaning to

A. Reality

B. Mystery

C. Hypothesis

D. Fiction

Question 11. The word “it” refers to

A. The brain

B. The person

C. The truth

D. The myth

Question 12. The word “ridiculous" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to

A. cheating

B. deceitful

C. unreasonable

D. imaginary

Question 13. Which of the following best paraphrases the sentence in paragraph 2?

"The truth is that although we don’t know everything about the human brain, we know that each part of it has an important function"?

A. Scientists have fully discovered the brain’s functions and can explain them accurately.

B. While some mysteries remain, it is clear that all areas of the brain serve essential purposes.

C. We use only certain parts of the brain, and others remain inactive.

D. Despite ongoing research, certain brain functions are less significant than others.

Question 14. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?

A. The brain is mostly composed of fat and contains little water.

B. Creative people mainly use the right side of their brains.

C. Each part of the brain has a specific and important function.

D. Scientists agree that we only use a small portion of our brains.

Question 15. In which paragraph does the passage introduce the purpose of discussing myths about the human brain and revealing the truth?

A. Paragraph 5

B. Paragraph 1

C. Paragraph 3

D. Paragraph 2

Question 16. In which paragraph does the passage mention that we use different parts of our brains for different tasks, such as language and attention?

A. Paragraph 4

B. Paragraph 2

C. Paragraph 3

D. Paragraph 5

READING 3: TOEFL

The pineapple has been cultivated and enjoyed by humans for thousands of years. According to archaeologists, evidence from drawings on ancient Peruvian pottery shows that Native Americans were cultivating the pineapple in about. Furthermore, some botanists believe that people in South and Central America began cultivating it. Cultivated pineapples do not produce seeds . This fact indicates that the plant has been dependent on humans for its reproduction for such a long time that it no longer can reproduce by itself.

When Europeans discovered the pineapple at the end of the fifteenth century, it was a case of love at first sight. Many of the early explorers reported favorably about this new fruit, saying that it had a delightful smell and a sweet, refreshing taste. In fact, of all the new American fruits that were brought back to Europe, the pineapple was the most successful. While other fruits, such as the tomato, were regarded with great suspicion and believed to be poisonous, the pineapple was accepted relatively quickly.

Throughout the sixteenth century, the ships of the European explorers carried pineapples from Central and South America to other parts of the world. During voyages, the fruit provided an excellent source of fresh food and vitamins for the ship’s crew. Furthermore, when they arrived the travelers found that, if the climate was suitable, it was easy to grow more fruit from the cut-off tops of pineapples. In the sixteenth century, pineapples were being cultivated in parts of India, Africa, and China. In Europe, the climate was generally too cold, so the fruit could be grown only by wealthy people with heated greenhouses.

Pineapples remained a luxury food until the early twentieth century, when they became more easily available. Faster shipping and improved rail and road connections made it possible to bring the pineapples to new markets. With the advent of safe industrial canning methods, factories could produce canned pineapple for mass markets. As the fruit became more available and better known, demand rose rapidly for both fresh and canned pineapple. Production quickly expanded to meet that demand, most notably in Hawaii, which dominates the world market. Puerto Rico, the Philippines, Kenya, and Thailand are also important pineapple products.

Question 17. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?

A. The process of industrial canning of pineapple

B. The importance of pineapple in voyages

C. The health benefits of eating pineapples

D. The origins of pineapple cultivation

Question 18. The word “delightful” in paragraph 2 is opposite in meaning to

A. Sweet

B. Poisonous

C. Sour

D. Pleasant

Question 19. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to

A. Europe

B. The pineapple

C. The tomato

D. The fruit

Question 20. The word “cultivated” in the first fine of the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ______

A. used

B. loved

C. eaten

D. grown

Question 21. Which sentence best paraphrases the sentence in paragraph 1? "Cultivated pineapples do not produce seeds."

A. Pineapples grown by humans no longer need to produce seeds.

B. The seeds of cultivated pineapples are less viable.

C. Wild pineapples produce seeds, but cultivated ones don’t.

D. Humans grow pineapples that are seedless.

Question 22. Which of the following statements is TRUE according to the passage?

A. Pineapples were always an affordable food option in Europe.

B. The climate in Europe was perfect for growing pineapples.

C. Pineapple production expanded rapidly in Hawaii due to high demand.

D. The pineapple was regarded with suspicion when first introduced to Europe.

Question 23. In which paragraph does the writer mention Europeans growing pineapples?

A. Paragraph 2

B. Paragraph 3

C. Paragraph 4

D. Paragraph 1

Question 24. In which paragraph does the writer mention the development of the pineapple market due to faster shipping?

A. Paragraph 1

B. Paragraph 2

C. Paragraph 4

D. Paragraph 3

Bộ câu hỏi đọc hiểu đoạn văn dạng 8 câu - Đề số 5

READING 1

Cultural diversity is a vital aspect of any society, and festivals of ethnic groups play an essential role in preserving the cultural identity of a community. Embracing cultural values through festivals is an important way of staying connected with one’s community as well as its history and traditions. The well-known Katê Festival of the Chăm people in Vietnam is an example that illustrates this.

The Katê Festival, also known as Mbăng Katê, is the biggest yearly festival for the Chăm people in Vietnam. It is a special time of year when they honor important figures in their history and the deceased members of their families. The festival takes place on the first day of the seventh month in the Chăm calendar, usually in September or October. It lasts for three days and occurs around three important ancient structures in Ninh Thuân Province: the Po Klaung Yägrai Tower, the Po Romé Tower, and the Po Inú Nagar Temple. All of these locations are significant to Champa culture and history.

On the morning of the first day, Chăm families participate in processions as they travel to the towers and temple, bringing gifts of fruit, meat, and rice. During a special ceremony, the Chăm people receive costumes of the Goddess Po Nagar from the Raglai people, a cultural group closely connected to Champa culture. The Chăm carry these costumes to the temple to celebrate Po Nagar, after which they open the gates. Inside the temple, they bathe the statues of important figures and watch sacred dances. Following these performances, people enjoy lively parties until the evening of the festival's second day.

On the last day, people make special offerings to their gods at community houses in their villages and pray for luck and good health for the coming year. Once this is over, there are traditional music performances, and people engage in fun activities such as playing football and participating in weaving competitions.

The Katê Festival is a popular celebration of the Chăm people's traditional culture and beliefs. It is not only an important event in the Chăm calendar but also a symbol of the Chăm community's unity and rich cultural heritage.

(Adapted from Bright)

Question 1. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason for the importance of festivals?

A. Connecting with history and traditions

B. Preserving cultural identity

C. Embracing cultural values

D. Celebrating technological advancements

Question 2. The word essential in paragraph 1 is OPPOSITE in meaning to

A. necessary

B. crucial

C. fundamental

D. unimportant

Question 3. The word "It" in paragraph 2 refers to

A. the Chăm people

B. the honoring of figures

C. the Katê Festival

D. the time of year

Question 4. The word "costumes" in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by

A. decorations

B. symbols

C. uniform

D. outfits

Question 5. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 5?A. The Katê Festival is rarely attended by the Chăm people.

B. The Katê Festival is an important event that reflects the Chăm people's culture and values.

C. The Katê Festival is a modern festival that focuses on new beliefs.

D. The Katê Festival is a small gathering of the Chăm community.

Question 6. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?

A. The Raglai people do not participate in the festival.

B. The Katê Festival lasts for four days.

C. The festival takes place in the first month of the Chăm calendar.

D. The Chăm people honor both historical figures and their ancestors.

Question 7. In which paragraph does the writer mention the historical significance of the festival?

A. Paragraph 3

B. Paragraph 2

C. Paragraph 4

D. Paragraph 1

Question 8. In which paragraph does the writer discuss the activities that take place during the festival?

A. Paragraph 1

B. Paragraph 3

C. Paragraph 2

D. Paragraph 4

READING 2.

Full-time education in the UK is compulsory from the age of five to sixteen, but this doesn’t have to be in a school. Around 50,000 children are educated at home. This is called ‘home schooling’.

Parents take their children out of school for different reasons, like illness and the need for special care, or because the distance to the nearest school may be too far. Some children are simply unhappy at school. Whatever the reason, they’re allowed to study at home, although inspectors regularly check how they are getting on.

Hayley and Jenny haven’t been to school for two years but they haven’t neglected their studies. Their mother worked out strict timetables for them, with hourly lessons for each day. She’s responsible for teaching them Maths, English, History and French. Their father teaches them Science and Geography. They study all the other school subjects online. ‘We have lessons with Dad in the evenings and at weekends,’ explains Hayley.

The family’s home is in a remote part of Wales. ‘The girls were fine at school but they spent so much time getting to school, they were too tired to learn,’ says their mother, Julia. ‘We had a family conference and in the end we decided to try home schooling. So far, it’s been a big success, but the girls know that if they want to go back to school at any time, we’ll let them. We follow the normal school programme of lessons, and they will take all the normal school exams.’
There are disadvantages too, of course. ‘Social isolation is something I worry about,’ says Julia. They both seem happy and well-adjusted , but they haven’t really got friends who live locally. But in the summer holidays they go away on trips to summer camps, where they have no trouble mixing with people and making friends.’

(Adapted from Focus)

Question 9. According to paragraph 1, which of the following is NOT a reason for home schooling?

A. Academic excellence

B. Unhappiness at school

C. Distance to school

D. Special care needs

Question 10. The word “worked out” in paragraph 3 is OPPOSITE in meaning to ______.

A. planned

B. calculated

C. exercised

D. improvised

Question 11. The word “they” in paragraph 4 refers to ______.

A. the parents

B. the lessons

C. the girls

D. the schools

Question 12. The word “well-adjusted” in paragraph 6 most probably means ______.

A. cheerful

B. popular

C. isolated

D. stable

Question 13. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?

A. The girls have no social interactions outside their home.

B. Home schooling eliminates the need for academic assessments.

C. Julia is concerned about the girls’ social interactions.

D. The family lives in an urban area with many school options.

Question 14. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4?

A. Julia, their mother, explains that although the girls were doing well at school, the distance they had to travel left them too drained to learn effectively.

B. The family resides in a remote region of Wales, and their mother, Julia, points out that the girls did okay in school, but the long journey made it hard for them to focus on learning.

C. The family lives in a distant area of Wales, and Julia says the girls performed well in school, but their long travel made them too fatigued to study properly.

D. Julia states that the girls were happy at school, but living far from it caused them to be too tired to concentrate on their studies.

Question 15. In which paragraph does the writer discuss the reasons for parents choosing home schooling?

A. Paragraph 3

B. Paragraph 4

C. Paragraph 2

D. Paragraph I

Question 16. In which paragraph does the writer describe the daily routine of Hayley and Jenny?

A. Paragraph I

B. Paragraph 2

C. Paragraph 3

D. Paragraph 4

READING 3.

Today, text-messaging has probably become young people’s most common form of communication. Someleachers think that because of this, young people are not writing correctly at school. They fear that once students get used to it, they will find it hard to switch back to using correct grammar and spelling. How did things begin this way?

It all began with e-mail, online chat rooms, and games. Then step by step young people made sentences, phrases and words shorter. As text-messaging continued to become popular, people invented more and more words. Today, it is like a real language with its own grammar and vocabulary. The growth of text-messaging has raised an important question: As students become fluent in text messaging, do their writing skills suffer?

People have different ideas about the effects of text-messaging on students’ writing skills. Some say that students are losing the ability to write long, correct sentences. Others say that text-messaging is having a good effect on the language students use in then schoolwork. It shows that they are creative and good at expressing themselves. And if students can keep the two systems separate - one for text messaging and one for school - this will help students appreciate reading and writing more.

Some people suggest that one way to reduce the bad effects of text-messaging is to find ways to use technology as a positive learning tool. For example, students can be allowed to type their assignments in a cell phone message and send them to their teachers, but they must type correctly. In this way, students are using the technology that they are familiar with to communicate in a form of language suitable for schoolwork. It shows students that text-messaging is fine for social communication, but correct grammar and spelling are necessary for communication in school. (298 words)

(Adapted from Strategic Reading by Richards and Eckstut-Didier)

Question 17. The word “switch” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to_______.

A. contrast

B. change

C. conform

D. differ

Question 18. The word “invented” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_______.

A. guessed

B. described

C. created

D. explained

Question 19. According to the second paragraph, the effects of text-messaging on students' writing skills include all of the following EXCEPT ______.

A. Increasing the use of correct grammar

B. Improving creativity in writing

C. Losing the ability to write long sentences

D. Helping students express themselves better

Question 20. The word “them” in paragraph 4 refers to _______.

A. assignments

B. people

C. students

D. effects

Question 21. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?

A. Text-messaging has led to the creation of a new language.

B. Students are encouraged to use text-messaging for all forms of communication.

C. Text-messaging has a positive effect on students’ creativity.

D. All teachers believe that text-messaging harms students' writing skills.

Question 22. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 3?

A. Everyone agrees that text-messaging negatively impacts students' writing skills.

B. There are varying opinions on how text-messaging influences students' writing abilities.

C. Most people believe text-messaging improves students' writing.

D. Students have the same views on the impact of text-messaging on their writing.

Question 23. In which paragraph does the writer discuss the concerns about text-messaging affecting students' writing skills?

A. Paragraph I

B. Paragraph 3

C. Paragraph 4

D. Paragraph 2

Question 24. In which paragraph does the writer suggest ways to mitigate the negative effects of text-messaging?

A. Paragraph 4

B. Paragraph 1

C. Paragraph 3

D. Paragraph 2

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