2 Đề thi học kì 1 lớp 11 môn tiếng Anh có file nghe

Đề thi tiếng Anh học kì 1 lớp 11 có file nghe và đáp án dưới đây nằm trong bộ đề kiểm tra học kì 1 tiếng Anh lớp 11 năm 2020 - 2021 do VnDoc.com sưu tầm và đăng tải. Đề thi tiếng Anh lớp 11 được biên tập bám sát chương trình học SGK tiếng Anh 11 mới Unit 1 - 5 giúp các em học sinh lớp 11 củng cố kiến thức Từ vựng - Ngữ pháp tiếng Anh trọng tâm hiệu quả.

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Đề thi học kì 1 tiếng Anh 11 có file nghe và đáp án - Đề số 1

I. Listening. Are the sentences true or false?

Bài nghe

1. The Pomodoro Technique was invented in the 1980s.

2. Students and workers can use the technique.

3. The technique is a bit complicated to use.

4. You need to break down your tasks into smaller sections.

5. Each break is called a ‘pomodoro’.

II. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others:

1. A agree B. arrange C. area  D. award
2. A. competition   B. completion C. information D. question

III. Choose the best answers:

1. Tom: “I have passed my driving test.” Daisy: “_______________”

A. Congratulations!

B. Thank you!

C. Good luck!

D. Bye!

2. The “ ___________ ” is often celebrated on people’s 25th wedding anniversaries.

A . Golden Anniversary

B. Diamond Anniversary

C . Cotton Anniversary

D. Silver Anniversary

3. She ____________ that film three times.

A. sees

B. saw

C. had seen

D. has seen

4. We ____________ lunch when we heard the news.

A. have

B. had

C. had had

D. were having

5.When they got to the station, the train ____________ already.

A. left

B. leaves

C. has left

D. had left

6. “ Don’t talk in class”, the teacher said.

A. The teacher told his student do not talk in class.

B. The teacher told his student did not talk in class.

C. The teacher told his student not to talk in class.

D. The teacher told his student not talking in class.

7. My mother let me ______________ after 9 PM.

A. go

B. goes

C. to go

D. going

8. She reminded him______________ the door carefully.

A. close

B. to close

C. to be closed

D. being closed

9. I caught him__________ the fence.

A. jumps

B. jumping

C. to jump

D. having jumping

10. ______________ for more than four hours, I felt tired and hungry.

A. Having worked

B. have worked

C. Having been worked

D. have been worked

11. I really hate the kind of person who is always _____________about little things.

A. making a fuss

B. satisfied

C. doing a lot

D. add

12. “I’m sorry I forgot your birthday,” said Dave to Julia.

A. Dave said he is sorry he forgot Julia’s birthday.

B. Dave said to Julia that I’m sorry I forgot your birthday

C. Dave excused Julia for forgetting her birthday.

D. Dave apologized for forgetting Julia’s birthday.

13. The transition from school to work does not happen smoothly to everybody.

A. full of troubles

B. with problems

C. plenty of challenges

D. without difficulties

14. Schools need ______________ to help children to read and write.

A. volunteers

B. pioneers

C. engineers

D. innovators

15. would / invite / I / to / like / house / to / our / you / party / and / the / party / /

A. I would like invite you to our house and to enjoy the party.

B. I would like to invite you to our house and enjoy the party .

C. I would like to enjoy you to our house and invite the party.

D. I would like you to invite to our house and enjoy the party.

16. I warned An ______________ staying at the hotel near the airport.

A. for

B. from

C. against

D. again

17. Shy people often find it difficult to __________ group discussion

A. take place in

B. take part in

C. get on with

D. get in touch with

18. The competition was ______________ by the Students' Parents Society.

A. bought B. called

C. sponsored

D. encouraged

IV. Choose the underlined part among A, B, C, D that needs correcting:

1. I spent (A) most of (B) my time in the train (C) read (D) my favorite book.

2. You had better (A) learning (B) a foreign (C) language before applying (D) for a job.

V. Read the passage and choose the best answer to fill in each blank

I’m in favor of English- speaking (1)_______in schools. Such contests encourage students to practice speaking English in their classes and help them (2)_________ their speaking skills. Besides, while preparing themselves for the contests, students have a chance to review their lessons thoroughly. Contests among classes provide students (3)_____________ opportunities to work with team spirit, thus enabling them to learn how (4)_______ with other people. Some students may think that their preparations for the speaking contests are time-consuming. However, in my opinion, such preparations are worth spending time on. My classmates and I have found that we speak English better after each contest. In sum, English-(5)___________contests school are useful to students.

1. A. clubs B. contests C. meetings D. classes

2. A. improve B. to improve C. A & B are correct D. improving

3. A. in B. for C. with D. to

4. A. cooperating B. to cooperate C. cooperate D. cooperated

5. A. speaking B. listening C. reading D. writing

VI. Read the passage and answer the questions

Mother Teresa born in the Republic of Macedonia founded the Missionaries of Charity in India. The task of this charity was to care for the hungry, the homeless, the blind,….. . It began as a small order , a religious community , with 13 members in Calcutta; today it has more than 4,000 nuns running orphanages, AIDS hospices, and charity centers worldwide, and caring for refugees, the blind, disabled, aged , the poor and homeless and victims of floods… on six continents. In 1952 with the help of Indian officials the first home for the Dying was opened when she converted an abandoned Hindu temple into the Kalighat Home for the Dying, the free hospice for the poor. She also is the first to establish homes for AIDS victims. By the early 1970s, Mother Teresa had become an international celebrity. Her fame can be in large part attributed to the 1969 documentary ‘Something Beautiful for God’ which was filmed by Malcolm Muggeridge. In 1971, she was awarded the Pope John XXIII Peace Prize , and India’s highest civilian award, the Bharat Ratna, in 1980.

1. Who founded the Missionaries of Charity in India?

……………………………………………………………………………………………

2. Did this charity look after the hungry, the homeless and the blind?

……………………………………………………………………………………………

3. What did Mother Teresa do in 1952?

…………………………………………………………………………………………….

4. Where do 4,000 nuns of the Missionaries of Charity care for refugees, the blind, disabled, aged ?

……………………………………………………………………………………………

5. Who made a film about Mother Teresa’s noble work?

………………………………………………………………………………………………

ĐÁP ÁN

I. Listening. Are the sentences true or false?

1 - True; 2 - True; 3 - False; 4 - True; 5 - False; ;

II. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others:

1 - C; 2 - D;

III. Choose the best answers:

1 - A; 2 - D; 3 - D; 4 - D; 5 - D; 

6 - C; 7 - A; 8 - B; 9 - B; 10 - A; 

11 - A; 12 - D; 13 - D; 14 - A; 15 - B; 

16 - C; 17 - B; 18 - C;

IV. Choose the underlined part among A, B, C, D that needs correcting:

1 - D; 2 - B; 

V. Read the passage and choose the best answer to fill in each blank

1 - B; 2 - C; 3 - C; 4 - B; 5 - A; 

VI. Read the passage and answer the questions

1 - Mother Teresa founded the Missionaries of Charity in India.

2 - Yes, it did

3 - She converted an abandoned Hindu temple into the Kalighat Home for the Dying, the free hospice for the poor. She also the first to establish homes for AIDS victims.

4 - in Calcutta

5 - Malcolm Muggeridge

Đề thi tiếng Anh 11 học kì 1 có file nghe và đáp án - Đề số 2

I. LANGUAGE USE

Questions 1-5: Circle the correct option (A, B, C, or D) to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

1. A. charter

B. casual

C. curfew

D. compare

2. A. impairment

B. assistance

C. solution

D. confidence

3. A. disabled

B. financial

C. infectious

D. cognitive

4. A. sympathetic

B. interference

C. economic

D. literature

5. A. associate

B. community

C. mobility

D. independent

Questions 6-11: Circle the correct option (A, B, C, or D) to complete each of the following sentences.

6. It was impossible _________ because of the noise.

A. slept

B. sleeping

C. sleep

D. to sleep

7. His decision to quit the job _________ all of us.

A. surprise

B. is surprised

C. surprising

D. surprised

8. People _________ the right skills always have big advantages in the job market.

A. of

B. about

C. for

D. with

9. So far, people _________ nearly $150,000 to help Virginia flood victims.

A. donate

B. donated

C. are donating

D. have donated

10. The Prime Minister _________ the Disability Confident Campaign two years ago.

A. has launched

B. has been launching

C. launches

D. launched

11. Group work is a great way to help disabled people _________ their self-esteem.

A. built

B. building

C. being built

D. build

Questions 12-16: Circle the correct option (A, B, C, or D) to complete each of the following sentences.

12. Some parents discipline their teen children harshly for missing _____________ even though they are only a few minutes late.

A. curves

B. curlews

C. curation

D. curfews

13. Sometimes a close friendship can develop into a _____________.

A. romantic

B. romantically

C. roman

D. romance

14. There are days in which I am _____________ a loss as to fit so may tasks in my schedule.

A. among

B. in

C. out

D. at

15. For family _____________, there must be mutual respect, understanding, and communication among family members.

A. conflicts

B. gap

C. rules

D. solidarity

16. ______________ people used to think that people with disabilities always need to be looked after.

A. Undisabled

B. Imdisabled

C. Indisabled

D. Non-disabled

Questions 17-19: Choose the best option (A-D) for each of the gaps to complete the conversation.

Lan: (17) __________________________

James: I supposed it's just a matter of time. As they grow up, they will be less dependent.

A. How to make our kids more independent, James?

B. When can we go on holiday, James?

C. Kids say their homework is stressful.

D. What is the most important task of parents?

James: Shall I pick you up at 6:00 for the movie?

My: (18) __________________________ go by myself. My class finishes at 5:45, so I'd better go straight to the cinema centre.

A. If you wouldn't mind, I

B. It doesn't really matter

C. Don't worry. I can

D. That's very kind of you, but actually

Patrick: I believe that education should be free for everyone.

Young-II: (19) __________________________

A. No sweat.

B. Credits should go to Mr Nam.

C. I couldn't agree with you more.

D. Don't worry. I'll do that.

II. LISTENING

Bài nghe

Questions 20-22: You will hear three short conversations. There is one question for each conversation. For each of the questions, circle the right answer (A, B, C, or D). You will listen to the recording twice.

20. What is the daughter wearing?

A. A skinny T-shirt.

B. A tight dress.

C. A short top.

D. Casual jeans.

21. What does the boy think about single-sex schools?

A. They're boring.

B. They limit academic performance.

C. They're full of joy.

D. They're life-changing.

22. Which is NOT correct about Tom Butler?

A. He’s excellent at Maths.

B. He wants to join a sport team.

C. He plays a sport well.

D. He won a medal in soccer.

Questions 23-27:Listen to a passage on The International Day of Persons with Disabilities. Fill in each gap of the note with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER. You will listen to the recording twice.

The International Day of Persons with Disabilities

Started: 1992

Aims: To increase (23)_____________________ of disability issues

Activities: Events, workshops and (24)_____________________

Facts about disability:

+ Over (25)_____________________ in the world live with disabilities.

+ Many people with disabilities lack help, care, (26)_____________________ and rights.

+ Disability is strongly connected with (27)_____________________.

III. READING

Questions 28-32: Read the passage about online dating and circle the best option (A, B, C, or D) to fill in each numbered blank. An example has been done for you.

A new report from the Pew Research Center (0)____________ most Americans think online dating is a good way (28)____________ people. Almost 60 per cent of Internet users say there is nothing wrong with trying to find a partner on the Internet. Around one in ten Americans has used online dating services. About 11 per cent of people who started a long-term (29)____________ in the past decade met their partner online. However, 32 per cent of the interviewees think the Internet does not help with marriage.

Sociologist Dr Kevin Lewis of the University of California told the USA Today newspaper that women must remain (30)____________ about online dates. He said: "There are lots of guys who build (31)____________ profiles but they are not honest." He said men can have problems finding a date, too. "They can't get a woman to respond because women receive so many messages." The Pew Report also warned people to be careful about those who tell lies about themselves online. Online (32)____________ are suggested to spend time understanding their dates before they decide to meet face to face.

0. A. tells

B. talks

C. says

D. speaks

28. A. meet

B. to meet

C. meeting

D. met

29. A. relate

B. relative

C. relating

D. relationship

30. A. easy

B. cool

C. elegant

D. cautious

31. A. flashy

B. fashionable

C. fast

D. flying

32. A. dating

B. services

C. daters

D. assistants

Questions 33-37: Read the passage about the ASEAN Para Games and circle the correct option (A, B, C, or D) to answer each of the given questions.

The year 2015 is a major year for Singapore sports! December 2015 will see Singapore hosting the 8th ASEAN Para Games. It is the first time in the history Singapore hosts the ASEAN Para Games for the persons with disabilities of this scale. Let's see how we are going to Celebrate the Extraordinary!

The ASEAN Para Games - an every-two-year multi-sport event organised by the ASEAN Para Sports Federation (APSF) for athletes with a disability - will be hosted here in conjunction with our 50th anniversary of independence. The eighth Games, expected to host 3,000 athletes and officials, will wrap up Singapore's 50th birthday celebrations. The seven-day multi-sport event will have its competition venues mainly at the Singapore Sports Hub and Kallang areas. There will be 15 sports in the 8th ASEAN Para Games. Beyond physical fitness, we believe in the power of sports to strengthen the character, uplift the spirits, and bond the community.

Adopting the theme of Celebrate the Extraordinary, the Games aims to stimulate friendship and solidarity amongst persons with disabilities in the ASEAN region, to encourage sport for the differently abled, and to integrate persons with disabilities into the society through sport. It will serve as a platform for promoting the bloc's motto "One Vision, One Identity, One Community".

33. What is the best title for the passage?

A. Singapore sports events

B. Celebrate the Extraordinary!

C. Who come to the Games?

D. The seventh ASEAN Para Games

34. The word “It” in the last paragraph refers to ____________.

A. the ASEAN region

B. the ASEAN motto

C. Singapore

D. the Games

35. If the Games is held every two year, the 9th ASEAN Para Games will be organised in ____________.

A. 2016

B. 2017

C. 2018

D. 2019

36. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as the power of sports?

A. Improve physical health.

B. Inspire people’s spirits.

C. Connect the society.

D. Recognise individual character.

37. One goal of the ASEAN Para Games is ____________.

A. to enhance solidarity among ASEAN

B. to integrate sports into the society

C. to serve a social platform

D. to create an ASEAN motto

IV. WRITING

Questions 38-42: For each question, complete the new sentence so that it means the same as the given one(s) using NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS.

An example has been done for you.

0. Daniel started Italian classes six months ago.

--> Daniel's had Italian classes ………for………….. six months.

38. I'm sure Jim had left when they arrived.

--> Jim _______________________________ when they arrived.

39. I'd advise you to check your answers.

--> You'd _______________________________.

40. She hates getting up early.

--> She can't _______________________________.

41. It is very difficult to speak French.

--> _______________________________ is very difficult.

42. There is a possibility of snow tonight.

--> It _______________________________.

ĐÁP ÁN

I. LANGUAGE USE

Questions 1-5: Circle the correct option (A, B, C, or D) to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

1. D

2. D

3. D

4. D

5. D

Questions 6-11: Circle the correct option (A, B, C, or D) to complete each of the following sentences.

6. D

7. D

8. D

9. D

10. D

11. D

Questions 12-16: Circle the correct option (A, B, C, or D) to complete each of the following sentences.

12. D

13. D

14. D

15. D

16. D

Questions 17-19: Choose the best option (A-D) for each of the gaps to complete the conversation.

17. A; 18. C; 19. C;

II. LISTENING

Questions 20-22: You will hear three short conversations. There is one question for each conversation. For each of the questions, circle the right answer (A, B, C, or D). You will listen to the recording twice.

20. C; 21. A; 22. D;

Questions 23-27:Listen to a passage on The International Day of Persons with Disabilities. Fill in each gap of the note with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER. You will listen to the recording twice.

23. global understanding

24. campaigns

25. 650 million

26. medicine

27. poverty

III. READING

Questions 28-32: Read the passage about online dating and circle the best option (A, B, C, or D) to fill in each numbered blank. An example has been done for you.

28. B; 29. D; 30. D; 31. A; 32. C;

Questions 33-37: Read the passage about the ASEAN Para Games and circle the correct option (A, B, C, or D) to answer each of the given questions.

33. B; 34. D; 35. B; 36. D; 37. A;

IV. WRITING

Questions 38-42: For each question, complete the new sentence so that it means the same as the given one(s) using NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS.

38. must have left

39. (better) check your answers

40. stand getting up early

41. Speaking French

42. may snow tonight

Download đề thi, đáp án & file nghe mp3 tại: Đề kiểm tra tiếng Anh lớp 11 học kì 1. Mời thầy cô tham khảo thêm nhiều tài liệu ôn tập Tiếng Anh lớp 11 cả năm khác như: Để học tốt Tiếng Anh lớp 11, Bài tập Tiếng Anh lớp 11 theo từng Unit trực tuyến, Đề thi học kì 1 lớp 11, Đề thi học kì 2 lớp 11,... được cập nhật liên tục trên VnDoc.com.

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