2 Đề thi học kì 1 lớp 11 môn tiếng Anh có file nghe
Đề thi tiếng Anh học kì 1 lớp 11 có file nghe và đáp án dưới đây nằm trong bộ đề kiểm tra học kì 1 tiếng Anh lớp 11 năm 2024 - 2025 do VnDoc.com sưu tầm và đăng tải. Đề thi tiếng Anh lớp 11 được biên tập bám sát chương trình học SGK tiếng Anh 11 mới Unit 1 - 5 giúp các em học sinh lớp 11 củng cố kiến thức Từ vựng - Ngữ pháp tiếng Anh trọng tâm hiệu quả.
2 Đề thi tiếng Anh lớp 11 học kì 1 có file nghe + đáp án
Bộ đề thi học kì 1 tiếng Anh 11 sách mới
Bộ đề thi tiếng Anh lớp 11 học kì 1 được biên soạn bám sát nội dung SGK tiếng Anh 11 mới như: Global success; i-Learn Smart World, Friends Global & Bright.
Sách Global success 11:
- Đề cương học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 11 sách Global Success
- Bộ đề thi học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 11 Global Success
- Đề thi học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 11 Global Success số 1
- Đề thi học kì 1 tiếng Anh 11 Global Success số 2
- Đề thi học kì 1 tiếng Anh 11 Global Success số 3
Sách Friends Global 11:
Sách Bright 11:
Nội dung bộ đề thi học kì 1 tiếng Anh 11 có file nghe
Đề thi học kì 1 tiếng Anh 11 có file nghe và đáp án - Đề số 1
I. Listening. Are the sentences true or false?
Bài nghe
1. The Pomodoro Technique was invented in the 1980s.
2. Students and workers can use the technique.
3. The technique is a bit complicated to use.
4. You need to break down your tasks into smaller sections.
5. Each break is called a ‘pomodoro’.
II. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others:
| 1. A agree | B. arrange | C. area | D. award |
| 2. A. competition | B. completion | C. information | D. question |
III. Choose the best answers:
1. Tom: “I have passed my driving test.” Daisy: “_______________”
A. Congratulations!
B. Thank you!
C. Good luck!
D. Bye!
2. The “ ___________ ” is often celebrated on people’s 25th wedding anniversaries.
A . Golden Anniversary
B. Diamond Anniversary
C . Cotton Anniversary
D. Silver Anniversary
3. She ____________ that film three times.
A. sees
B. saw
C. had seen
D. has seen
4. We ____________ lunch when we heard the news.
A. have
B. had
C. had had
D. were having
5.When they got to the station, the train ____________ already.
A. left
B. leaves
C. has left
D. had left
6. “ Don’t talk in class”, the teacher said.
A. The teacher told his student do not talk in class.
B. The teacher told his student did not talk in class.
C. The teacher told his student not to talk in class.
D. The teacher told his student not talking in class.
7. My mother let me ______________ after 9 PM.
A. go
B. goes
C. to go
D. going
8. She reminded him______________ the door carefully.
A. close
B. to close
C. to be closed
D. being closed
9. I caught him__________ the fence.
A. jumps
B. jumping
C. to jump
D. having jumping
10. ______________ for more than four hours, I felt tired and hungry.
A. Having worked
B. have worked
C. Having been worked
D. have been worked
11. I really hate the kind of person who is always _____________about little things.
A. making a fuss
B. satisfied
C. doing a lot
D. add
12. “I’m sorry I forgot your birthday,” said Dave to Julia.
A. Dave said he is sorry he forgot Julia’s birthday.
B. Dave said to Julia that I’m sorry I forgot your birthday
C. Dave excused Julia for forgetting her birthday.
D. Dave apologized for forgetting Julia’s birthday.
13. The transition from school to work does not happen smoothly to everybody.
A. full of troubles
B. with problems
C. plenty of challenges
D. without difficulties
14. Schools need ______________ to help children to read and write.
A. volunteers
B. pioneers
C. engineers
D. innovators
15. would / invite / I / to / like / house / to / our / you / party / and / the / party / /
A. I would like invite you to our house and to enjoy the party.
B. I would like to invite you to our house and enjoy the party .
C. I would like to enjoy you to our house and invite the party.
D. I would like you to invite to our house and enjoy the party.
16. I warned An ______________ staying at the hotel near the airport.
A. for
B. from
C. against
D. again
17. Shy people often find it difficult to __________ group discussion
A. take place in
B. take part in
C. get on with
D. get in touch with
18. The competition was ______________ by the Students' Parents Society.
A. bought B. called
C. sponsored
D. encouraged
IV. Choose the underlined part among A, B, C, D that needs correcting:
1. I spent (A) most of (B) my time in the train (C) read (D) my favorite book.
2. You had better (A) learning (B) a foreign (C) language before applying (D) for a job.
V. Read the passage and choose the best answer to fill in each blank
I’m in favor of English- speaking (1)_______in schools. Such contests encourage students to practice speaking English in their classes and help them (2)_________ their speaking skills. Besides, while preparing themselves for the contests, students have a chance to review their lessons thoroughly. Contests among classes provide students (3)_____________ opportunities to work with team spirit, thus enabling them to learn how (4)_______ with other people. Some students may think that their preparations for the speaking contests are time-consuming. However, in my opinion, such preparations are worth spending time on. My classmates and I have found that we speak English better after each contest. In sum, English-(5)___________contests school are useful to students.
1. A. clubs B. contests C. meetings D. classes
2. A. improve B. to improve C. A & B are correct D. improving
3. A. in B. for C. with D. to
4. A. cooperating B. to cooperate C. cooperate D. cooperated
5. A. speaking B. listening C. reading D. writing
VI. Read the passage and answer the questions
Mother Teresa born in the Republic of Macedonia founded the Missionaries of Charity in India. The task of this charity was to care for the hungry, the homeless, the blind,….. . It began as a small order , a religious community , with 13 members in Calcutta; today it has more than 4,000 nuns running orphanages, AIDS hospices, and charity centers worldwide, and caring for refugees, the blind, disabled, aged , the poor and homeless and victims of floods… on six continents. In 1952 with the help of Indian officials the first home for the Dying was opened when she converted an abandoned Hindu temple into the Kalighat Home for the Dying, the free hospice for the poor. She also is the first to establish homes for AIDS victims. By the early 1970s, Mother Teresa had become an international celebrity. Her fame can be in large part attributed to the 1969 documentary ‘Something Beautiful for God’ which was filmed by Malcolm Muggeridge. In 1971, she was awarded the Pope John XXIII Peace Prize , and India’s highest civilian award, the Bharat Ratna, in 1980.
1. Who founded the Missionaries of Charity in India?
……………………………………………………………………………………………
2. Did this charity look after the hungry, the homeless and the blind?
……………………………………………………………………………………………
3. What did Mother Teresa do in 1952?
…………………………………………………………………………………………….
4. Where do 4,000 nuns of the Missionaries of Charity care for refugees, the blind, disabled, aged ?
……………………………………………………………………………………………
5. Who made a film about Mother Teresa’s noble work?
………………………………………………………………………………………
VII. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
1. It's only her second time in an international conference about further education.
A. It was the second time she had been in an international conference about further education.
B. She has only been in an international conference about further education once before.
C. She has never been to any international conference about further education before.
D. She has already got used to being in an international conference about further education.
2. I started writing this essay hours ago and it's still not right.
A. I have been writing this essay for hours and it's still not right.
B. It's hours ago since I last wrote this essay correctly.
C. The last time I started writing this essay was hours ago, which is still not right.
D. I didn't stop to write this essay hours ago and it's still not right.
3. “You'd better work harder if you don't want to retake the exam!” the teacher said to Jimmy.
A. The teacher advised Jimmy to work harder if he didn't want to retake the exam.
B. The teacher ordered Jimmy to work harder if he didn't want to retake the exam.
C. The teacher reminded Jimmy to work harder if he didn't want to retake the exam.
D. The teacher warned Jimmy to work harder if he didn't want to retake the exam.
ĐÁP ÁN
I. Listening. Are the sentences true or false?
1 - True; 2 - True; 3 - False; 4 - True; 5 - False;
Host: On ‘Star Students’ today we’re speaking to Peter who is going to tell us about the Pomodoro Technique, a system to help manage your time. It was invented by an Italian man called Francesco Cirillo in the 1980s. He called it the Pomodoro Technique after a tomato-shaped timer that his mother used to use when she was cooking. Pomodoro is Italian for tomato. And this tomato has helped Peter become an A-grade student. Welcome, Peter.
Peter: Thanks.
Host: Tell us about the Pomodoro Technique. What’s it about?
Peter: It’s about getting maximum productivity from your available time. I use it for studying, but professionals use it at work.
Host: Is it difficult to follow?
Peter: No. It’s actually very simple. It’s about breaking down your work into separate jobs and then using a timer to separate your time into periods of intensive work and short breaks.
Host: OK, that sounds sensible. How do you start?
Peter: First of all, you should think about the task you need to complete. For example, writing an essay for homework. You need to think about all the stages of the task and write a clear to-do list on a piece of paper. When you are ready to start you set the timer to 25 minutes and you start working on the first item on the list.
Host: OK … but what happens when the timer goes off?
Peter: When the timer goes off you must take a short break of between 3 to 5 minutes. One 25-minute session is one ‘pomodoro’ so when you have completed this you deserve a short break. You should try to move about a bit during the break.
Then set the timer for another 25 minutes and keep working. At the end of the next ‘pomodoro’ you have another short break. As you complete the items on the ‘to-do’ list you should tick them off, to give you a feeling of satisfaction that you’re getting the job done.
Host: OK … I get it. Can you use any timer? Most people have timers on their phones these days, can you use that?
Peter: You could, but the danger is that then you check messages on your phone or you start looking at apps. I use my dad’s kitchen timer and I make sure I switch off my phone when I’m studying. I get so much more done. In the breaks I sometimes check my phone but only if I’ve completed some of the items on my to-do list.
Host: Three to five minutes isn’t long for a break. Is that enough time?
Peter: Well, when you’ve had four or five short breaks you can take a longer break, then you start again.
Host: And it works?
Peter: Yes! It works for me. It stops me wasting time. My work is much more effective when I use the timer. It’s like short, intense periods of work. I actually get my homework done a lot quicker now which leaves me more free time, so for me it works really well.
Host: I think I’ll give it a try. Thanks for coming in, Peter.
Peter: You’re welcome. Thanks for inviting me.
II. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others:
1 - C; 2 - D;
III. Choose the best answers:
1 - A; 2 - D; 3 - D; 4 - D; 5 - D;
6 - C; 7 - A; 8 - B; 9 - B; 10 - A;
11 - A; 12 - D; 13 - D; 14 - A; 15 - B;
16 - C; 17 - B; 18 - C;
IV. Choose the underlined part among A, B, C, D that needs correcting:
1 - D; 2 - B;
V. Read the passage and choose the best answer to fill in each blank
1 - B; 2 - C; 3 - C; 4 - B; 5 - A;
VI. Read the passage and answer the questions
1 - Mother Teresa founded the Missionaries of Charity in India.
2 - Yes, it did
3 - She converted an abandoned Hindu temple into the Kalighat Home for the Dying, the free hospice for the poor. She also the first to establish homes for AIDS victims.
4 - in Calcutta
5 - Malcolm Muggeridge
VII. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
1. B | 2. A | 3. A |
Đề thi tiếng Anh 11 học kì 1 có file nghe và đáp án - Đề số 2
I. LANGUAGE USE
Questions 1-5: Circle the correct option (A, B, C, or D) to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
1. A. charter | B. casual | C. curfew | D. compare |
2. A. impairment | B. assistance | C. solution | D. confidence |
3. A. disabled | B. financial | C. infectious | D. cognitive |
4. A. sympathetic | B. interference | C. economic | D. literature |
5. A. associate | B. community | C. mobility | D. independent |
Questions 6-11: Circle the correct option (A, B, C, or D) to complete each of the following sentences.
6. It was impossible _________ because of the noise.
A. slept
B. sleeping
C. sleep
D. to sleep
7. His decision to quit the job _________ all of us.
A. surprise
B. is surprised
C. surprising
D. surprised
8. People _________ the right skills always have big advantages in the job market.
A. of
B. about
C. for
D. with
9. So far, people _________ nearly $150,000 to help Virginia flood victims.
A. donate
B. donated
C. are donating
D. have donated
10. The Prime Minister _________ the Disability Confident Campaign two years ago.
A. has launched
B. has been launching
C. launches
D. launched
11. Group work is a great way to help disabled people _________ their self-esteem.
A. built
B. building
C. being built
D. build
Questions 12-16: Circle the correct option (A, B, C, or D) to complete each of the following sentences.
12. Some parents discipline their teen children harshly for missing _____________ even though they are only a few minutes late.
A. curves
B. curlews
C. curation
D. curfews
13. Sometimes a close friendship can develop into a _____________.
A. romantic
B. romantically
C. roman
D. romance
14. There are days in which I am _____________ a loss as to fit so may tasks in my schedule.
A. among
B. in
C. out
D. at
15. For family _____________, there must be mutual respect, understanding, and communication among family members.
A. conflicts
B. gap
C. rules
D. solidarity
16. ______________ people used to think that people with disabilities always need to be looked after.
A. Undisabled
B. Imdisabled
C. Indisabled
D. Non-disabled
Questions 17-19: Choose the best option (A-D) for each of the gaps to complete the conversation.
Lan: (17) __________________________
James: I supposed it's just a matter of time. As they grow up, they will be less dependent.
A. How to make our kids more independent, James?
B. When can we go on holiday, James?
C. Kids say their homework is stressful.
D. What is the most important task of parents?
James: Shall I pick you up at 6:00 for the movie?
My: (18) __________________________ go by myself. My class finishes at 5:45, so I'd better go straight to the cinema centre.
A. If you wouldn't mind, I
B. It doesn't really matter
C. Don't worry. I can
D. That's very kind of you, but actually
Patrick: I believe that education should be free for everyone.
Young-II: (19) __________________________
A. No sweat.
B. Credits should go to Mr Nam.
C. I couldn't agree with you more.
D. Don't worry. I'll do that.
II. LISTENING
Bài nghe
Questions 20-22: You will hear three short conversations. There is one question for each conversation. For each of the questions, circle the right answer (A, B, C, or D). You will listen to the recording twice.
20. What is the daughter wearing?
A. A skinny T-shirt.
B. A tight dress.
C. A short top.
D. Casual jeans.
21. What does the boy think about single-sex schools?
A. They're boring.
B. They limit academic performance.
C. They're full of joy.
D. They're life-changing.
22. Which is NOT correct about Tom Butler?
A. He’s excellent at Maths.
B. He wants to join a sport team.
C. He plays a sport well.
D. He won a medal in soccer.
Questions 23-27:Listen to a passage on The International Day of Persons with Disabilities. Fill in each gap of the note with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER. You will listen to the recording twice.
The International Day of Persons with Disabilities
Started: 1992
Aims: To increase (23)_____________________ of disability issues
Activities: Events, workshops and (24)_____________________
Facts about disability:
+ Over (25)_____________________ in the world live with disabilities.
+ Many people with disabilities lack help, care, (26)_____________________ and rights.
+ Disability is strongly connected with (27)_____________________.
III. READING
Questions 28-32: Read the passage about online dating and circle the best option (A, B, C, or D) to fill in each numbered blank. An example has been done for you.
A new report from the Pew Research Center (0)____________ most Americans think online dating is a good way (28)____________ people. Almost 60 per cent of Internet users say there is nothing wrong with trying to find a partner on the Internet. Around one in ten Americans has used online dating services. About 11 per cent of people who started a long-term (29)____________ in the past decade met their partner online. However, 32 per cent of the interviewees think the Internet does not help with marriage.
Sociologist Dr Kevin Lewis of the University of California told the USA Today newspaper that women must remain (30)____________ about online dates. He said: "There are lots of guys who build (31)____________ profiles but they are not honest." He said men can have problems finding a date, too. "They can't get a woman to respond because women receive so many messages." The Pew Report also warned people to be careful about those who tell lies about themselves online. Online (32)____________ are suggested to spend time understanding their dates before they decide to meet face to face.
0. A. tells | B. talks | C. says | D. speaks |
28. A. meet | B. to meet | C. meeting | D. met |
29. A. relate | B. relative | C. relating | D. relationship |
30. A. easy | B. cool | C. elegant | D. cautious |
31. A. flashy | B. fashionable | C. fast | D. flying |
32. A. dating | B. services | C. daters | D. assistants |
Questions 33-37: Read the passage about the ASEAN Para Games and circle the correct option (A, B, C, or D) to answer each of the given questions.
The year 2015 is a major year for Singapore sports! December 2015 will see Singapore hosting the 8th ASEAN Para Games. It is the first time in the history Singapore hosts the ASEAN Para Games for the persons with disabilities of this scale. Let's see how we are going to Celebrate the Extraordinary!
The ASEAN Para Games - an every-two-year multi-sport event organised by the ASEAN Para Sports Federation (APSF) for athletes with a disability - will be hosted here in conjunction with our 50th anniversary of independence. The eighth Games, expected to host 3,000 athletes and officials, will wrap up Singapore's 50th birthday celebrations. The seven-day multi-sport event will have its competition venues mainly at the Singapore Sports Hub and Kallang areas. There will be 15 sports in the 8th ASEAN Para Games. Beyond physical fitness, we believe in the power of sports to strengthen the character, uplift the spirits, and bond the community.
Adopting the theme of Celebrate the Extraordinary, the Games aims to stimulate friendship and solidarity amongst persons with disabilities in the ASEAN region, to encourage sport for the differently abled, and to integrate persons with disabilities into the society through sport. It will serve as a platform for promoting the bloc's motto "One Vision, One Identity, One Community".
33. What is the best title for the passage?
A. Singapore sports events
B. Celebrate the Extraordinary!
C. Who come to the Games?
D. The seventh ASEAN Para Games
34. The word “It” in the last paragraph refers to ____________.
A. the ASEAN region
B. the ASEAN motto
C. Singapore
D. the Games
35. If the Games is held every two year, the 9th ASEAN Para Games will be organised in ____________.
A. 2016
B. 2017
C. 2018
D. 2019
36. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as the power of sports?
A. Improve physical health.
B. Inspire people’s spirits.
C. Connect the society.
D. Recognise individual character.
37. One goal of the ASEAN Para Games is ____________.
A. to enhance solidarity among ASEAN
B. to integrate sports into the society
C. to serve a social platform
D. to create an ASEAN motto
IV. WRITING
Questions 38-42: For each question, complete the new sentence so that it means the same as the given one(s) using NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS.
An example has been done for you.
0. Daniel started Italian classes six months ago.
--> Daniel's had Italian classes ………for………….. six months.
38. I'm sure Jim had left when they arrived.
--> Jim _______________________________ when they arrived.
39. I'd advise you to check your answers.
--> You'd _______________________________.
40. She hates getting up early.
--> She can't _______________________________.
41. It is very difficult to speak French.
--> _______________________________ is very difficult.
42. There is a possibility of snow tonight.
--> It _______________________________.
ĐÁP ÁN
I. LANGUAGE USE
Questions 1-5: Circle the correct option (A, B, C, or D) to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
1. D
2. D
3. D
4. D
5. D
Questions 6-11: Circle the correct option (A, B, C, or D) to complete each of the following sentences.
6. D
7. D
8. D
9. D
10. D
11. D
Questions 12-16: Circle the correct option (A, B, C, or D) to complete each of the following sentences.
12. D
13. D
14. D
15. D
16. D
Questions 17-19: Choose the best option (A-D) for each of the gaps to complete the conversation.
17. A; 18. C; 19. C;
II. LISTENING
Questions 20-22: You will hear three short conversations. There is one question for each conversation. For each of the questions, circle the right answer (A, B, C, or D). You will listen to the recording twice.
20. C; 21. A; 22. D;
Nội dung bài nghe
Conversation 1
Woman: Stop, Anna. What are you wearing?
Girl: Come on, Mum, I’m late for class. Just a crop top with skinny jeans.
Woman: I’m sorry, dear but these are too short and tight for class. Change to casual stuffs … Jeans and T-shirt… your new white dress is ok.
Girl: Oh, Mum…
Conversation 2
Woman: In my old days, we went to single-sex school.
Boy: Didn’t you feel bored, Granny?
Woman: Not a second. We concentrated on study, and we had very good academic performance.
Boy: But I feel it limited your chance to enjoy life to the full.
Conversation 3
Boy: Do you know Tom Butler?
Girl: Who don’t know him? The Maths monster of our school. He has just won a gold medal in the city Mathematics contest.
Boy: Well, he has asked to join my soccer team.
Girl: I saw him play soccer once. I’m sure he won’t make you disappointed.
Questions 23-27:Listen to a passage on The International Day of Persons with Disabilities. Fill in each gap of the note with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER. You will listen to the recording twice.
23. global understanding
24. campaigns
25. 650 million
26. medicine
27. poverty
III. READING
Questions 28-32: Read the passage about online dating and circle the best option (A, B, C, or D) to fill in each numbered blank. An example has been done for you.
28. B; 29. D; 30. D; 31. A; 32. C;
Questions 33-37: Read the passage about the ASEAN Para Games and circle the correct option (A, B, C, or D) to answer each of the given questions.
33. B; 34. D; 35. B; 36. D; 37. A;
IV. WRITING
Questions 38-42: For each question, complete the new sentence so that it means the same as the given one(s) using NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS.
38. must have left
39. (better) check your answers
40. stand getting up early
41. Speaking French
42. may snow tonight
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