Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi huyện Thiệu Hóa, Thanh Hóa môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9 năm 2014 - 2015

Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi cấp huyện môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9

Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi huyện Thiệu Hóa, Thanh Hóa môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9 năm 2014 - 2015 với nhiều câu hỏi Tiếng Anh kiểm tra các kỹ năng: Ngữ âm, Ngữ pháp, Đọc và Viết, giúp các bạn học sinh lớp 9 ôn tập và nâng cao kỹ năng Tiếng Anh cần thiết, mời các bạn tham khảo.

Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi cấp huyện môn tiếng Anh lớp 9 huyện Đức Thọ năm 2010 - 2011

Đề thi học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9 huyện Vĩnh Tường năm 2013 - 2014

Đề thi học sinh giỏi môn tiếng Anh 9 huyện Phù Cừ, Hưng Yên năm học 2014 - 2015

Part A: PHONETICS (5 pts)

Question I. Choose and write in your answer sheet the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest of the group. (3 pts)

1. A. sensitive B. benefit C. pretty D. remedy

2. A. exhibition B. exhaust C. exhibit D. exist

3. A. parachute B. mechanic C. Christmas D. scheme

Question II. Choose and write in your answer sheet the word whose stress pattern is different from the rest of the group. (2 pts)

1. A. intermediate B. documentary C. psychedelic D. communicate

2. A. exhibition B. precaution C. position D. selection

Part B : LEXICAL AND GRAMMAR (50 pts)

Question I. Choose the best answer among A, B, C and D. (15pts)

1. She wondered ................... her father looked like now.

A. how B. whose C. that D. what

2. Lan is the .................. of the three girls.

A. prettier B. prettiest C. pretty D. most pretty

3. My watch is slow and ............... is my sister's.

A. either B. too C. so D. neither

4. We ............... the nearest village before the sunset.

A. came B. arrived C. reached D. went

5. My sister will have a ................ course of English next month.

A. two months B. two-months C. two-month D. second-month

6. They live on a busy road. .................a lot of noise from traffic.

A. There must be B. It must be C. It must have been D. There must have

7. .....................make a good impression on her.

A. Only by doing so can I B. Only by so doing I can
C. Only by doing so I can D. Only so doing can I

8. Geometry is a branch of mathematics ...................the properties of lines, curves, shapes and surfaces.

A. that concerning with B. concerned with
C. that concerned with D. that it is concerned with

9. "Do you mind if I turn on the fan?" – "..................".

A. Not for me B. Not at all C. Never mind D. Not enough

10. ..................that Columbus discovered America.

A. There was in 1492 B. That was in 1492
C. In 1492 D. It was in 1492

11. Peter sometimes helps me ................ my homework.

A. to do B. do C. with D. all are correct

12. I give her a telephone to ring ............ she gets lost.

A. whether B. unless C. until D. in case

13. I'm very interested in the rice - ...................contest.

A. cook B. cooked C. cooking D. to cook

14. She looks very .................... in her new Ao dai.

A. beauty B. beautifully C. beautify D. beautiful

15. My brother has lived in Peru for ten years, but he ........doesn't understand Spanish.

A. already B. yet C. still D. any more

Question II. Use the correct form of the verbs in brackjets. (10pts)

1. His hair is short. He (have)___________ a haircut.

2. He said that he (see)___________ that man before.

3. If today (be)___________ Sunday, we would go picnic.

4. This house didn't use to (paint)___________ green.

5. She wishes she (not punish)___________ tomorrow.

6. My father told me (not stay)___________ up too late.

7. When I met him at the bookstore, he (talk)___________ to his friends

8. He ate as if he (not, eat) ___________ anything for a long time.

9. He intends (help)__________________ his mother to clean the house tomorrow.

10. I remembered (lock)_____________ the door last night before I went to bed

Question III. There is one mistake in each of the following sentences. Find and correct it. (10 points)

1. My mother said that she was leaving to Da Nang the following day.

2. The whale died because the rescuers did not have proper equipment to support its weigh.

3. Hoa is not only intelligent but very hard – working.

4. Science and technology are part of the knowledges of educated people.

5. Because there are less people at the meeting we have to wait for the next meeting to vote.

6. Soccer is the most popular in England. It always takes places at weekends.

7. She refused accepting her friends' invitation.

8. Mrs Stevens , along with her cousins from New Mexico, are planning to attend the festival.

9. The magazine went out of business because they did not have readers enough.

10. I would love coming to your wedding, but it isn't possible.

Question IV. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate prepositions. (5pts)

1. Jacson was late because he was not aware .......... the time

2. Three prisoners escaped ........... the prison in May

3. Take an umbrella with you. It will save you ........ getting wet on the way home.

4. I cut the paper ................. a pair of scissors.

5. I put salt in my coffee ................ mistake.

Question V. Supply an appropriate form of the words in brackets. (10pts)

1. We don't like him. He's 40 years old but he's very ..................... (CHILD)

2. What are ...... of life, Mary? - They are food, clothing and shelter (NEED)

3. Put these vegetables in the freezer to preserve their ................ (FRESH)

4. Many people believe that .............. jobs are plentiful in the city. (PAY)

5. The roots of these plants are..............., so we use them for food. (EAT)

6. Sam was accused of stealing some......... documents from the safe. (CONFIDENCE)

7. What do people do for a living in your home village?

=> The women work at home as housewives and the men are................... (FISH)

8. Don't talk......... . You should think carefully before saying anything (SENSE)

9. "VNPT" is short for Viet Nam Posts and ...... Group. (COMMUNICATION)

10. The thief got into the house easily because the door was left .................... (LOCK)

Part C: READING. (25pts)

Question I. Fill in each of the blanks with one suitable word. (10 pts)

Our classes take place for three hours every morning from Monday (1)............. Friday. The maximum class size is twelve (2) .............. the average is ten. We use modern methods of (3) ............. and learning, and the school has a language laboratory, a video camera and recorders. However, you will only be successful in improving (4) ............. English if you work hard and (5) ........ speaking English as much as you can. You will take a short (6) ............. in English as soon as you arrive. In this way, we can put you in a (7) ............. at the most suitable level.

There are two classes at the Elementary level; one is for complete beginners and the other is for students who know only a little English. In both classes you will practise simple conversations. In the class (8) ............. the intermediate level you will have a lot of practice in communication in real-life situations because we help you to use the English you have previously (9) ............. in your own country, You will also have chances to improve your (10) .............. of English grammar and to build up your vocabulary...

Question II. Choose the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the passage. (10 pts)

Around the age (1)....... sixteen, you must make one of the biggest decisions of your life. Do I stay on at school and hopefully, go on to university later? Do I leave and start work or beginning a training (2).........?

The decision is yours, but it may be (3)............. remembering two things: There is more unemployment (4).......... those who haven't been to university, and people (5).......... have the right skills will have a big advantage in the competition for jobs. If you decide to go straight into a job, there are (6).......... opportunities for training. Getting qualifications will (7).......... you get on more quickly in many careers, and evening classes allow you to learn (8).......... you earn. Starting work and taking a break to study when you are older is (9.......... possibility. This way, you can save up money for your student days, as well as (10).......... practical work experience.

Question III. Read the passage and answer the questions. (5pts)

"Where is the university?" is a question many visitors to Cambridge ask, but no one can give them a clear answer, for there is no wall to be found around the university. The university is the city.

You can find the classroom buildings, libraries, museums and offices of the university all over the city. And most of its members are the students and teachers or professors of the thirty-one colleges.

Cambridge was an already developing town long before the first students and teachers arrived 800 years ago. It grew up by the river Granta, as the Cam was once called. A bridge was built over the river as early as 875.

In the fourteenth and fifteenth centuries more and more land was used for college buildings. The town grew much faster in the nineteenth century after the opening of the railway in 1845. Cambridge became the city in 1951 and now it has the population of over 100,000. Many young students want to study at Cambridge. Thousands of people from all over the world come to visit the university town. It has become a famous place all around the world.

Question:

1. Why do most visitors come to Cambridge?

2. When did the university begin to appear?

3. Why did people name Cambridge the "city of Cambridge"?

4. When did the town really begin to develop quickly?

5. Why do many visitors to Cambridge ask the question "Where is the university"?

Part D : WRITING (20 pts)

Question I. Rewrite the following sentences so that the meanings stay the same as the ones given. (10pts)

1. If it doesn't rain soon, they will lose the crop.

Unless ....................................................................................................................

2. I can't sing beautifully, so I can't join them now.

I wish .....................................................................................................................

3. She couldn't come to class because of her illness.

As ..........................................................................................................................

4. He got down to writing the letter as soon as he returned from his walk.

No sooner .............................................................................................................

5. I have never read such a romantic story.

This is ...................................................................................................................

6. Even though I admire his courage, I think he is foolish.

Much ....................................................................................................................

7. The sea was so rough that the ferry couldn't sail.

The rough sea .....................................................................................................

8. Their chances of success are small.

It is not ................................................................................................................

9. Keeping calm is the secret of passing your driving test.

As long as ...........................................................................................................

10. The train journey from London to Bristol takes two hours.

It is a ..................................................................................................................

Question II. Use the cues to make complete sentences. (5pts)

1. He/ learn / English / two years now.

2. cars/ buses/ move along/ slowly / because / weather / foggy.

3. Nobody / predict/ what / happen.

4. The noise / the traffic/ prevented /me/ go to sleep/

5. since / beginning/ course / I / never/ be late / class.

Question III. It is said that we should wear helmet when riding a motor bike. Do you think so? Write a passage (80 - 100 words) about your idea. (5pts)

Đáp án đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi cấp huyện môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9

Part A: PHONETICS (5 points)

Question I. Choose and write in your answer sheet the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest of the group. (3 points)

1. C 2. A 3. A

Question II. Choose and write in your answer sheet the word whose stress pattern is different from the rest of the group. (2 points)

1. D 2. A

Part B: LEXICAL AND GRAMMAR (50 points)

Question I. Choose the best answer among A, B, C, and D. (15 points)

1. D 2. B/D 3. C 4. C 5. C

6. A 7. A 8. B 9. B 10. D

11. D 12. D 13. C 14. D 15. C

Question II. Use the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (10 points)

1. has had 2. had seen 3. were 4. be painted 5. wouldn't be punished

6. not to stay 7. was talking 8. hadn't eaten 9. to help 10. locking

Question III. Each of the following sentences has a mistake. Find it and correct it. (10 points)

1. to → for 2. weigh → weight 3. very → also 4. knowledges → knowledge

5. less → few/fewer 6. places → place 7. accepting → to accept 8. are → is

9. readers enough → enough readers 10. coming → to come

Question IV. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate prepositions. (5 points)

1. of 2. from 3. from 4. with 5. by

Question V. (10 points)

1. childish 2. necessities 3. freshness 4. well-paying/paid

5. edible 6. confidential 7. fishermen (fishers) 8. Nonsense

9. telecommunications 10. unlocked

Part C: READING. (25 points)

Question I. Fill in each of the blanks with one suitable word. (10 points)

1. to 2. and 3. teaching 4. your 5. practise

6. test 7. class 8. at 9. learnt/studied 10. knowledge

Question II. Choose the best answer to complete the passage. (10 points)

1. D. of 2. C. course 3. A worth 4. B. among 5. C. who

6. B. many 7. B. help 8. B. while 9. C. another 10. A. getting

Question III. Read the passage and answer the questions. (5 points)

1. Because they want to see the university.

2. It began to appear 800 years ago.

3. Because there is a bridge built over the Cam.

4. It really began to develop quickly after 1845.

5. Because there is no wall to be found around the university.

Part D: WRITING (20 pts)

Question I. Rewrite the following sentences so that the meanings stay the same as the ones given. (10 points)

1. Unless it rains soon, they will loose the crop.

2. I wish I could sing beautifully, so I could join them now

3. As She was ill, she couldn't come to class

4. No sooner had he returned from his walk than he got down to writing the letter

5. This is the most romantic story I have ever read

This is the first time I have read such a romantic story

so romantic a story

6. Much as I admire his courage, I think he is foolish

7. The rough sea made it impossible for the ferry to sail

The rough sea prevented/ stopped/ kept the ferry from sailing

8. It is not likely that they will succeed

9. As long as you keep calm, you will pass your driving test

10. It is a two - hour train journey from London to Bristol

Question II. Use the cues to make complete sentences. (5 points)

1. He has been learning English for two years now.

2. Cars and buses were moving along slowly because the weather was foggy.

3. Nobody can predict what will happen.

4. The noise of the traffic prevented me from going to sleep.

5. Since the beginning of the course, I have never been late for class.

Question III. (5 points)

Tổ chấm thống nhất điểm thành phần của bài luận theo những điểm đề nghị sau:

• Organization: (Bố cục bài luận rõ ràng, đầy đủ 3 phần: mở bài, thân bài, kết luận) (0,5point)
• Discourse: (Thể hiện khả năng viết mạch lạc, chặt chẽ; nối kết câu, chuyển mạch tốt) (1 point)
• Sentence structure (morphology, vocabulary, spelling): Cấu trúc câu, ngữ pháp, từ vựng; câu linh hoạt (đơn, phức..) (2 point)
• Ideas: (Ý hay, phong phú, biểu đạt nội dung liên quan chặt chẽ với chủ đề của đề thi) (1 point)
• Length: (Đảm bảo đủ số lượng từ qui định: không quá dài hoặc quá ngắn. (0,5point)