Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia môn tiếng Anh lần 1 trường THPT Chuyên Biên Hòa, Hà Nam có đáp án
Đề thi thử tiếng Anh THPT Quốc Gia 2021 có đáp án
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Đề ôn thi THPT Quốc Gia môn tiếng Anh năm 2021 có đáp án được biên tập bám sát chương trình SGK tiếng Anh lớp 12 của bộ GD&ĐT giúp các em học sinh lớp 12 ôn tập những kiến thức Từ vựng - Ngữ pháp tiếng Anh trọng tâm hiệu quả.
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Read the following passage and write the letter A, B, C or D on the top of the first page to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
In 1972. a century after the first national park in the United States was established at Yellowstone, legislation was passed to create the National Marine Sanctuaries Program. The intent of this legislation was to provide protection to selected coastal habitats similar to that existing for land areas designated as national parks. The designation of an areas a marine sanctuary indicates that it is a protected area, just as a national park is. People are permitted to visit and observe there, but living organisms and their environments may not be harmed or removed.
The National Marine Sanctuaries Program is administered by the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, a branch of the United States Department of Commerce. Initially, 70 sites were proposed as candidates for sanctuary status. Two and a half decades later, only fifteen sanctuaries had been designated, with half of these established after 1978. They range in size from the very small (less than 1 square kilometer) Fagatele Bay National Marine Sanctuary in American Samoa to the Monterey Bay National Marine Sanctuary in California, extending over 15,744 square kilometers.
The National Marine Sanctuaries Program is a crucial part of new management practices in which whole communities of species, and not just individual species, are offered some degree of protection from habitat degradation and overexploitation. Only in this way can a reasonable degree of marine species diversity be maintained in a setting that also maintains the natural interrelationships that exist among these species.
Several other types of marine protected areas exist in the United States and other countries. The National Estuarine Research Reserve System managed by the United States government, includes 23 designated and protected estuaries. Outside the United States, marine protected-area programs exist as marine parks, reserves and preserves.
Over 100 designated areas exist around the periphery of the Caribbean Sea. Others range from the well-known Australian Great Barrer Reef Marine Park to lesser-known parks in countries such as Thailand and Indonesia, where tourism is placing growing pressures on fragile coral reef systems. As state, national, and international agencies come to recognize the importance of conserving marine biodiversity, marine projected areas whether as sanctuaries,parks, or estuarine reserves, will play an increasingly important role in preserving that diversity.
Question 1: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Differences among marine parks, sanctuaries, and reserves
B. Various marine conservation programs
C. International agreements on coastal protection
D. Similarities between land and sea protected environments
Question 2: The word “administered” the passage is closest in meaning to ……
A. managed B. recognized C. opposed D. justified
Question 3: The passage mentions the Monterey Bay National Marine Sanctuary in paragraph 2 as an example of a sanctuary that ….
A. is not well known
B. covers a large area
C. is smaller than the Fagatele Bay National Marine Sanctuary
D. was not originally proposed for sanctuary status
Question 4: According to the passage, when was the National Marine Sanctuaries Program established?
A. Before 1972
B. After 1987
C. One hundred years before national parks were established
D. One hundred years after Yellowstone National Park was established
Question 5: According to the passage, all of the following are achievements of the National Marine Sanctuaries Program EXCEPT …..
A. the discovery of several new marine organisms
B. the preservation of connections between individual marin especies
C. the protection of coastal habitats
D. the establishment of areas where the public can observe marine life
Question 6: The word “periphery” in the passage is closest in meaning to___________
A. depth B. landmass C. warm habitat D. outer edge
Question 7: The passage mentions which of the following as a threat to marine areas outside the United States?
A. Limitations infinancial support B. The use of marine species as food
C. Variability ofthe climate D. Increases in tourism
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the blanks.
Question 8: He is sleeping in his mother’s house this week as he …..his house painted.
A. has B. is having C. had D. has had
Question 9: John and Karen persuaded me ….. the conference.
A. attending B. attended C. to attend D. to have attended
Question 10: I think it’s ….. to take a few more pictures.
A. enough light B. lightly enough C. light enough D. enough as light
Question 11: Flower oils are ….. of the ingredients used in making perfume.
A. among expensive B. among the most expensive
C. being most expensive D. expensive
Question 12: ….I heard the phone ring, I didn’t answer it.
A. because B. Only if C. Even though D. Provided that
Question 13: Ann has a lot of books, …… she has never read.
A. most of that B. most of these C. most of which D. which most of them
Question 14: My first school day was a ….. event in my life.
A. memory B. memorized C. memorial D. memorable
Question 15: If we didn’t …. any measures to protect whales, they would disappear forever.
A. use B. make C. take D. do
Question 16: People who take on a second job inevitably ….. themselves to greater stress.
A. offer B. subject C. field D. place
Question 17: One condition of this job is that you must be …… to work at weekends.
A. available B. capable C. acceptable D. accessible
Question 18: Could you lend me some money to ….. me over to the end of the month?
A. hand B. tide C. get D. make
Question 19: It is the …..of stupidity to go walking in the mountains in this weather.
A. height B. depth C. source D. matter
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: -“ Would you mind lending me you bike?” – “ ……”
A. Yes. Here it is B. Not at all C. Great D. Yes, let’s
Question 21: Havy: “Thanks for your help, Judy.” Judy: “……..”
A. With all my heart B. Never remind me C. It’s my pleasure D. Wish you
Read the following passage and write the letter A, B, C or D on the top of the first page to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
In the course of its history, human inventions have dramatically increased the average amount of energy available for use per person. Primitive peoples in cold regions burned wood and animal dung to heat their caves, cook food, and drive off animals by fire. The first step toward the developing of more efficient fuels was taken when people discovered that they could use vegetable oils and animal fats in lieu of gathered or cut wood. Charcoal gave off more intensive heat than wood and was more easily obtainable than organic fats. The Greeks first began to use coal for metal smelting in the 4th century, but it did not come into extensive use until the Industrial Revolution.
In the 1700s, at the beginning of the Industrial Revolution, most energy used in the United States and other nations undergoing industrialization was obtained from perpetual and renewable sources, such as wood, water streams, domesticated animal labor, and wind. These were predominantly locally available supplies. By mid-1800s, 91 percent of all commercial energy consumed in the United States and European countries was obtained from wood. However, at he beginning of the 20th century, coal became a major energy source and replaced wood in industrializing countries. Although in most regions and climate zones wood was more readily accessible than coal, the latter represents a more concentrated source of energy. In 1910, natural gas and oil firmly replaced coal as the main source of fuel because they are lighter and, therefore, cheaper to transport. They burned more cleanly than coal and polluted less. Unlike coal, oil could be refined to manufacture liquid fuels for vehicles, a very important consideration in the early 1900s, when the automobile arrived on the scene.
By 1984, non-renewable fossil fuels, such as oil, coal, and natural gas, provided over 82 percent of the commercial and industrial energy used in the world. Small amounts of energy were derived from nuclear fission, and the remaining 16 percent came from burning direct perpetual and renewable fuels, such as biomass. Between 1700 and 1986, a large number of countries shifted from the use of energy from local sources to a centralized generation of hydropower and solar energy converted to electricity. The energy derived from non- renewable fossil fuels has been increasingly produced in one location and transported to another, as is the case with most automobile fuels. In countries with private, rather than public transportation, the age of non-renewable fuels has created a dependency on a finite resource that will have to be replaced.
Alternative fuel sources are numerous, and shale oil and hydrocarbons are just two examples. The extraction of shale oil from large deposits in Asian and European regions has proven to be labor consuming and costly. The resulting product is sulfur-and nitrogen-rich, and large scale extractions are presently prohibitive. Similarly, the extraction of hydrocarbons from tar sands in Alberta and Utah is complex. Semi-solid hydrocarbons cannot be easily separated from the sandstone and limestone that carry them, and modern technology is not sufficiently versatile for a large-scale removal of the material. However, both sources of fuel may eventually be needed as petroleum prices continue to rise and limitations in fossil fuel availability make alternative deposits more attractive.
Question 22: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Application of various fuels
B. Natural resources and fossil fuels
C. A history of energy use
D. A historical review of energy rates
Question 23: It can be inferred from the first paragraph that _______________-
A. coal mining was essential for primitive peoples
B. the Greeks used coal in industrial productions
C. the development of efficient fuel was a gradual process
D. the discovery of efficient fuels was mostly accidental
Question 24: The author of the passage implies that in the 1700s, sources of energy were
A. used for commercial purposes
B. used in various combination
C. not derived from mineral deposits
D. it could be converted to automobile fuel.
Question 25: The phrase “the latter” refers to _______________
A. wood
B. coal
C. most regions
D. climate zones
Question 26: According to the passage, what was the greatest advantage of oil as fuel?
A. it was a concentrated source of energy.
B. it was lighter and cheaper than coal.
C. it replaced wood and coal and reduced pollution.
D. it could be converted to automobile fuel.
Question 27: It can be inferred from the passage that in the early 20th centurgy, energy was obtained primarily from ____________
A. Fossil fuels B. Nuclear fission
C. Hydraulic and solar sources D. Burning biomass
Question 28: The author of the passage implies that alternative sources of fuel are currently ____________
A. being used for consumption
B. available in few locations
C. being explored
D. examined on a large scale
Question 29: The word “prohibitive” is closest in meaning to _____________
A. prohibited
B. provided
C. too expensive
D. too expedient
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the top of the first page to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 30: A. return B. market C. process D. office
Question 31: A. abandon B. benefit C. constitute D. dialect
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 32: There are such many planets in the universe that we cannot count them.
A. such
B. in the
C. cannot
D. them.
Question 33: The nitrogen makes up over 78 percent of the Earth’s atmosphere, the gaseous mass surrounding the planet.
A. The nitrogen
B. over
C. percent of
D. surrounding
Question 34: Pateurization is the process of the heating milk to destroy disease-caused organisms and bacteria.
A. the heating
B. to destroy
C. disease-caused
D. bacteria.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 35: The soccer team knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other.
A. Not only did the soccer team lose the match but they blamed each other as well
B. No sooner had the soccer team started to blame each other than they knew they lost the match.
C. As soon as they blamed each other, the soccer team knew they lost the match.
D. Hardly had the soccer team known they lost the match when they started to blame each other.
Question 36: We have been friends for years. It is quite easy to share secrets between us.
A. Being friends for years, we find it quite easy to share secrets.
B. We find it quite easy to share secrets, being friends for years.
C. We have been friends so that it is quite easy to share secrets between us.
D. Having been friends for years, we find it quite easy to share secrets between us.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Ever since it was first possible to make a real robot, people have been hoping for the invention of a machine that would do all the necessary jobs around the house. If boring and repetitive factory work could be (37)___________ by robots, why not boring and repetitive household chores too?
For a long time the only people who really gave the problem their attention were amateur inventors And they came up against a major difficulty. That is, housework is actually very complex It has never been one job it has always been many. A factor robot (38) _________one task endlessly until it is reprogrammed to do something else. It doesn’t run the whole factory. A housework robot on the other hand, has to do several different (39) _________of cleaning and carrying jobs and also has to cope (40) ________positions of rooms, furniture, ornaments, cats and dogs. (41)_______all the different shapes and, there have been some developments recently. Sensors are available to help the robot locate objects and avoid obstacles. We have the technology to produce the hardware. All that is missing the software- the programs that will operate the machine.
Question 37: | A. managed | B. succeeded | C. made | D. given |
Question 38: | A. carries over | B. carries out | C. carries off | D. carries away |
Question 39: | A. systems | B. types | C. ways | D. methods |
Question 40: | A. from | B. with | C. by | D. for |
Question 41: | A. However | B. Therefore | C. Besides | D. Moreover |
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 42: The shop assistant was totally bewildered by the customer’s behavior.
A. disgusted
B. puzzled
C. angry
D. upset
Question 43: The works of such men as the English philosophers John Locke and Thomas Hobbes helped pave the way for academic freedom in the modern sense.
A. terminate
B. prevented
C. enhanced
D. incorporated
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 44: The US troops are using much more sophisticated weapons in the Far East.
A. expensive
B. complicated
C. simple and easy to use
D. difficult to operate
Question 45: His replies were inconsistent with his previous testimony.
A. contradicted
B. compatible
C. enhanced
D. incorporated
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentences that is CLOSEST in meaning to each of the following question.
Question 46: If I hadn’t had so much work to do I would have gone to the movies.
A. Because I had to do so much work I couldn’t go to the movies.
B. I would go to the movies when I had done so much work.
C. A lot of work couldn’t prevent me from going to the movies.
D. I never go to the movies if I have work to do.
Question 47: “ Why don’t you get your hair cut, Gavin?” said Adam.
A. Adam advised Gavin to cut his hair.
B. Gavin was suggested to have a hair cut.
C. It was suggested that Adam get Gavin’s haircut.
D. Adam suggested that Gavin should have his hair cut.
Question 48: Even if the job market is not stable, those who persist will be able to land jobs eventually.
A. When it’s hard to find a job, jobs on land are even harder.
B. Patient people will secure jobs even in an instable job market.
C. Only persistent job seekers can find jobs.
D. In land jobs are only available to persistent jobs applicants.
Question 49: A. enjoyed B. ironed C. picked D. served
Question 50: A. stone B. top C. pocket D. modern
Đáp án Đề thi THPT Quốc gia môn tiếng Anh năm 2021
1-B | 2-A | 3-B | 4-D | 5-A | 6-D | 7-D | 8-B | 9-C | 10-C |
11-B | 12-C | 13-C | 14-D | 15-C | 16-B | 17-A | 18-B | 19-A | 20-B |
21-B | 22-C | 23-C | 24-C | 25-B | 26-D | 27-A | 28-A | 29-C | 30-A |
31-A | 32-A | 33-A | 34-C | 35-D | 36-D | 37-A | 38-B | 39-B | 40-B |
41-A | 42-B | 43-C | 44-C | 45-B | 46-A | 47-D | 48-B | 49-C | 50-A |
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Đối với kì thi THPT Quốc gia thì luyện đề là một trong những hoạt động cần thiết và không thể bỏ qua để các bạn có thể tập dượt và đánh giá được khả năng của mình. Bên cạnh đó việc ôn luyện lý thuyết và bài tập theo mảng cụ thể, ví dụ như câu điều kiện, word form, trọng âm, trắc nghiệm ngữ pháp tiếng Anh, trắc nghiệm ..cũng rất hữu ích giúp các bạn đạt điểm cao trong kì thi quan trọng này.
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