Bộ đề thi giữa kì 2 Tiếng Anh 9 Friends plus có file nghe và đáp án

Bộ đề thi giữa kì 2 Tiếng Anh 9 Friends plus năm 2025 gồm 2 đề thi khác nhau có đầy đủ file nghe và đáp án, thầy cô có thể tham khảo ra đề và ôn luyện cho học sinh. Đây cũng là tài liệu hay cho các em học sinh ôn tập, chuẩn bị cho kì thi giữa học kì 2 lớp 9 sắp tới đạt kết quả cao. Mời thầy cô và các bạn tải về tham khảo chi tiết. 

1. Đề kiểm tra giữa kì 2 Tiếng Anh 9 Friends plus - Đề 1

A/ LISTENING (2 points)

Part 1. You are going to hear a travel agent talking with a client who is planning her summer holiday. For each of the questions 1-4 choose the best answer A, B, or C, as in the example.

The woman wants to book a holiday for

A. 1 person.

B. 2 people.

C. 3 people.

Question1. She wants to go on holiday in

A. two weeks’ time.

B. June.

C. July.

Question2. When on holiday, all of the woman’s family enjoy

A. going to restaurants.

B. staying in the city.

C. going to museums.

Question3. Who went to Spain last year?

A. the woman

B. the woman’s husband

C. the woman’s daughter

Question4. The travel agent says that

A. Italy is cheap.

B. the food in Italy is good.

C. the Italian countryside is beautiful.

Part 2. Listen to a conversation and decide if the statements are true (T) or false (F). Number 0 is an example

Sarah is a teacher._{…………T…………..}
Question 5. She usually arrives at work at nine o ’clock._{……………………..}
Question 6 . She often has work to do in the evening._{……………………..}
Question 7. She never goes out during the week. _{……………………..}
Question 8. Sarah doesn’t work at weekends. _{……………………..}

B/ PRONUNCIATION (1 point)

Part 1. Find the word which has a different sound in the part underlined.(0.5 point)

Question 9. A. developed​​        B. located​​        C. founded​​          D. completed

Question 10 . A. teach         B. bean         C. clean         D. instead

Part 2. Choose the word which has a different stress pattern from the others.

Question 11.	A. decision	B. tourism	C. ability	D. delicious
Question 12.	A. respect	B. suburb	C. value	D. limit

C.GRAMMAR- VOCABULARY(2.5points)

Part 1. Choose the best option (A, B, C or D) to complete these sentences. (1.75points)

Question 13.Mrs. Brown, _______ son won the first prize in the language contest, felt very happy.

A. who

B. that

C. which

D. whose

Question 14. Make sure you _______ a hotel before you come to our island, especially in the summer.

A. book

B. kept

C. puts

D. buys

Question 15. She ____________ some Spanish when she was in Mexico.

A. took up

B. looked up

C. picked up

D. held up

Question 16. She spoke English with a(n) ____________ that I couldn’t understand.

A. accent

B. stress

C. intonation

D. tone

Question 17. The car _______ I bought yesterday is red.

A. who

B. which

C. whom

D. whose

Question 18. _______ tourism is about exploring local cuisines and trying delicious dishes.

A. food

B. culture

C. sport

D. festival

Question 19. Minh asked me if I _______ Mount Fansipan.

A. knew

B. know

C. would know

D. will know

Part 2. Read and fill in the blanks with the correct the letter A, B, C, or D (0.75 point)

Scattered across the clear blue water of the eastern Caribbean are the Grenadines. They are a chain of 32 islands and famous for their stunning beauty (20)____makes the Grenadines’ laid-back atmosphere. Lush vegetation blankets the volcanic islands, providing a habitat for (21) ____ species like the Grenadines dove. However, the Grenadines face a challenge: striking a balance between (22) _____ tourism and protecting their pristine environment.

Question 20 . A. whose B. who C.whereD. which

Question 21. A. plants B. animals C. species D. dangers

Question 22 . A. increasing B. developing C. maintaining D. promoting

READING.(2.5pts)

Part 1. Read and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space.(1.25pts)

City planners have claimed trees (23)______ an important role in an urban environment. Children growing (24)______close to nature have better health, while walking in parks reduce blood pressure, stress and obesity. The problem is to select the right trees and (25)______ them. Ha Noi is considered one of the greenest cities in Viet Nam thanks to its beautiful and precious trees. Ancient trees in Ha Noi are frequently (26)______ in poems. Each street can be (27)______ by a tree. To local residents, the hundred-year old trees that line the streets are more than just beautiful, they are a part of the city’s identity.

Question23.	A. act	B. play	C. enjoy	D. perform
Question24.	A. on	B. in	C. up	D. by
Question25.	A. maintain	B. service	C. provide	D. care
Question26.	A. mention	B. mentioning	C. mentions	D. mentioned
Question27.	A. described	B. represented	C. expressed	D. explained

Part 2. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. (1.25 points)

English: The Global Language

English is no longer just the language of England; it is now spoken and understood by billions of people worldwide. This widespread use is due to several historical and ongoing factors. The British Empire, which once spanned the globe, played a significant role in establishing English in many countries. It became the language of administration, trade, and education in these colonies. Even after independence, many former colonies retained English as an official language or a language of business and education.

The rise of the United States as a global superpower further solidified English’s dominance. American movies, music, and technology are popular worldwide, exposing people to the language and making it relevant for various purposes. Additionally, the growth of international business has made English the preferred language of communication for companies operating across borders.

Looking ahead, the internet and social media continue to fuel the spread of English. Online platforms connect people from different countries, often using English as the bridge language. As technology advances and the world becomes more interconnected, English is likely to maintain its position as a leading global language.

Question 28. What is the main idea of the passage?

A. English is a difficult language to learn.

B. The internet will eventually replace English as the global language.

C. English is the official language of the United States.

D. English is spoken by many people worldwide due to historical and ongoing factors.

Question 29. How did the British Empire contribute to the spread of English?

A. English became the language of administration in many colonies.

B. The British Empire had a strong military presence worldwide.

C. English became popular due to British literature.

D. English was taught in all British schools.

Question 30. Why is English the preferred language for international business?

A. English is the easiest language to learn.

B. Many countries require businesses to use English.

C. English is the official language of the United Nations.

D. English allows companies from different countries to communicate effectively.

Question 31. According to the passage, what is one way the internet promotes the use of English?

A. The internet offers free English language courses.

B. Many websites are only available in English.

C. English is the most common language used in social media.

D. The internet allows people to avoid using any language at all.

Question 32. What does the phrase “bridge language” refer to in the passage?

A. A language that is difficult to understand.

B. A language that allows people from different backgrounds to communicate.

C. A language that is spoken by very few people.

D. A language that is no longer spoken by anyone.

WRITING (2 points)

Part 1. Choose the best sentence that can be combined from the two ones given.(0,5point)

Question 33. They want to visit a city. The city is famous for its rich history.

A. They want to visit a city who is famous for its rich history.

B. They want to visit a city which is famous for its rich history.

C. They want to visit a city which city is famous for its rich history.

D. They want to visit a city whom is famous for its rich history.

Question 34. “Are you sure about the quality of these English courses?” I asked them.

A. I asked them if they were sure about thequality of these English courses.

B. I asked them whether they were sure about thequality of these English courses.

C. I asked them if they were sure about thequality of those English courses.

D. I asked them whether they are sure about thequality of those English courses.

Part 2. Based on the information below, write a paragraph of about 120 words about tourisn in Ninh Thuan. (1,5 points)

Location: south – central Viet Nam

Attractions:

+ white sand beaches, Vinh Hy Bay, vast gardens of grapes, Nam Cuong sand hill, Nui Chua National Park.

+ unique culture of Cham minority ethnic group: dance, sculpture, pottery, festivals…

Accommodation: wide range of homestays and hotels.

Đáp án đề kiểm tra giữa kì 2 Tiếng Anh 9 Friends plus

A/ LISTENING (2 points)

Part 1. Listen to an advert for an activity camp twice then decide whether the statements are True (T) or False (F). (1 point)

1. F

2. T

3. F

4. T

Part 2. Listen to 4 short conversations TWICE then choose the correct answer for each question. (1 point)

5. C

6. A

7. C

8. B

B/ PRONUNCIATION (1 point)

Part 1. Find the word which has a different sound in the part underlined. (0,5 points)

9. A

10. B

Part 2. Choose the word which has a different stress pattern from the others.

11. B

12. A

C/ GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY (2,5 points)

Part 1.Choose the best option to complete each sentence. (1 point)

13. D	14. C	15. B	16. A
17. A	18. A	19. A

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2. Đề thi giữa kì 2 Tiếng Anh 9 Friends plus - Đề 2

A. LISTENING:

Listen to 4 short conversations and choose the letter A, B or C to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. (You will hear the recording TWICE.) (1.0 point)

Question 1. Which is Tom’s picture?

A. a rocket

B. a planet and stars

C. a planet

Question 2. What is Tom going to paint today?

A. a tiger in the jungle

B. spiders in a cave

C. a spider on a leaf

Question 3. What does Tom need next?

A. paper

B. magazine

C. scissors

Question 4. What time does the football game start?

A. 5:00

B. 3:15

C. 4:0

Listen to the conversation and decide whether the statements below are true (T) or false (F). (You will hear the recording TWICE.) (1.0 point)

Statements	T/F
Question 5. Jane has History exam on Tuesday.
Question 6. Dad is going to fly to London on Thursday afternoon.
Question 7. They are going to the cinema on Friday evening.
Question 8. They are going to SAFFAON Restaurant on Saturday.

B. PRONUNCIATION

Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. (0.5 point)

Question 9. A. holidays B. tickets C. tours D. models

Question 10. A. language B. exchange C. vocabulary D. Mandarin

Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. (0.5 point)

Question 11. A location	B. paradise	C. natural	D. tropical
Question 12. A. electric	B. personal	C. hilarious	D. convenient

C. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY

Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. (1.75 points)

Question 13. The national park boasted an incredible ____________ of animals, including elephants, lions, giraffes, zebras, and countless other fascinating species.

A. diversify

B. diversifying

C. diversity

D. diverse

Question 14. Every one of us has made a positive _____________ to the overall success of the project.

contribute B. contribution C. contributor D. contributing

Question 15. Minh asked me if I _____________Mount Fansipan.

A. knew

B. know

C. would know

D. will know

Question 16. Tourism offers the chance to admire the natural ___________ of diverse landscapes.

A. flavour

B. beauty

C. taste

D. smell

.................................

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