Đề thi giữa kì 2 tiếng Anh 10 Bright số 2
Đề thi giữa kì 2 tiếng Anh 10 Bright có file nghe và đáp án
Đề thi tiếng Anh 10 giữa học kì 2 Bright năm 2025 - 2026 có file nghe và đáp án với nhiều dạng bài tập tiếng Anh lớp 10 cơ bản giúp các em học sinh cải thiện những kỹ năng làm bài thi hiệu quả và đạt điểm cao trong kì thi sắp tới.
I. Đề thi giữa học kì 2 tiếng Anh lớp 10 Bright
PART 1 PRONUNCIATION (4 questions)
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
|
1. |
A. avoid |
B. inspire |
C. explore |
D. limit |
|
2. |
A. recycle |
B. souvenir |
C. safari |
D. disaster |
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
|
3. |
A. marathon |
B. natural |
C. classical |
D. tradition |
|
4. |
A. agrees |
B. raises |
C. believes |
D. provides |
PART 2 USE OF ENGLISH (12 questions)
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
5. You call a plumber if you need someone to ______________ a burst pipe.
A. perform
B. make
C. fix
D. care
6. I’m looking for a ______________ job. I don’t mind what it is, but I’m only free on Saturdays and Sundays.
A. full-time
B. part-time
C. shifts
D. nine-to-five
7. My current salary isn’t high. I ______________ able to afford to buy a house if I ______________ a better salary.
A. would be/ had
B. was/ would have
C. will be/ have
D. am/ will have
8. The classrooms have been ______________ with interactive whiteboards.
A. fitted into
B. fitted
C. fitted for
D. fitted out
9. I usually ______________ a nap after lunch. It helps me to reduce sleepiness and work effectively in the afternoon.
A. do
B. make
C. take
D. bring
10. The sink was full of dirty dishes, so I ______________.
A. set the table
B. mopped the floor
C. cleared the dishwasher
D. did the washing-up
11. I’m preparing for the party tomorrow. Can you help me ______________ the decorations?
A. put up
B. put on
C. put in
D. put out
12. My mum ______________ the floor using soap and water twice a week.
A. vacuums
B. mops
C. dusts
D. makes
13. I enjoy watching ______________ because they bring me great laughter.
A. operas
B. ballets
C. tragedies
D. comedies
14. Sometimes, it’s difficult to ______________ with your colleagues.
A. give out
B. fit in
C. give away
D. fit out
15. More______________ use of energy resources is considered to be fundamental in the 21st century.
A. self-sufficient
B. sufficient
C. efficient
D. ineffective
16. She lay back in the dentist's chair and tried ______________ before the operation.
A. relaxing
B. to relax
C. to be relaxed
D. having relaxed
PART 3 WORD FORM (4 questions)
Write the correct form of the given words.
17. With such a host of new features and ______________, the new version of the game is a must-buy. (AUGMENT)
18. Many people believe factory farming is not only ______________ but also harmful to the environment. (HUMAN)
19. The victims of abuse have suffered physically and ______________. (EMOTION)
20. These mental exercises are designed to encourage ______________. (CREATE)
PART 4 READING (10 questions)
Read the text and write ONE suitable word in each space. (5 questions)
Free-Time Activities
There are four main types of free-time activities.
The first type involves making something. This type includes cooking or building things. It also includes collecting things and putting them together, like stamps in a book. People say this type of activity (21)___________ relaxing. You think about creating a cake or making a robot and you forget about any problems in your life.
In the second type, people play a game of some sort, like football or tennis. Nowadays, many people play video games instead of going to the park to play with friends. These activities are exciting and, again, (22)___________ help you to forget tests at school or projects which you have to finish.
People go somewhere to do the third type of activity, for example, a stadium to attend a sports event or a concert hall to watch musicians playing classical music or rock. Like the second type of activity, (23)___________ free-time events are exciting. A very popular free-time activity is going to the mall to buy things or just to hang out with friends and have a coffee or a cold drink, perhaps. This is probably not exciting, but it is fun.
Finally, we have a very relaxing free-time activity which is not like any of the others. It only involves a person and a book. A lot of children do (24)___________ read books anymore but, if you have never done it, try it some time. If you find the right kind of book, you can lose yourself in the story for half an hour (25)___________ longer, and you are fresh to go back to work afterwards.
Read the text and choose the best word or phrase for each space. (5 questions)
Guide Dogs for the Blind
Guide dogs are trained to assist blind people. Without this help, it is very difficult for a blind person to leave home and walk down the street safely. A guide dog is trained to help its owner to avoid objects both in front and above, for example, low tree branches. There are several charities which train dogs, and one of the main ones is Guide Dogs for the Blind. It has (26)___________ money for guide dogs since 1934.
A guide dog will always stop at a pedestrian crossing. The dog does not know if the light is green or red, so it cannot decide if it’s safe to cross. The owner will listen to see if the traffic (27)___________ stopped before telling the dog to walk. However, if the guide dog believes it is dangerous, then it will not follow the instruction.
You can help the (28)___________ continue to do its amazing work in many ways. One of the most interesting ideas is to play a special game online with your friends to earn money for the charity. You can also join the organisation in fundraising at fairs and sports events in your local area. Or you can (29)___________ to raise a puppy and learn how to look after it in your home for the first 12 months of its life.
(30)___________ life for blind people. Donate to Guide Dogs for the Blind today.
|
(26) |
A. paid |
B. donated |
C. raised |
D. increased |
|
(27) |
A. have |
B. has |
C. is |
D. are |
|
(28) |
A. team |
B. club |
C. group |
D. charity |
|
(29) |
A. volunteer |
B. accept |
C. pay |
D. go |
|
(30) |
A. Better |
B. Improve |
C. Make |
D. Have |
PART 5 LISTENING (10 questions)
Listen to the announcement on television. Complete the notes. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER in each numbered space. (5 questions)
| Channel | Programme details | |
| 1. | 601 | Star Kids: Talent Show, including Marie - singer, and Jo - (31) ____ tricks |
| 2. | 602 | Green Planet: (32) ______ Adventure Part 2 |
| 3. | 603 | Holmes and the (33) ______: Holmes to the Rescue! |
| 4. | 604 | Chalk and Cheese: The School (34) _______ |
| 5. | 605 | Dangerbear: Journey into (35) _________ |
(31)___________________
(32)___________________
(33)___________________
(34)___________________
(35)___________________
Listen to the talk. Complete the notes. Write ONE WORD AND / OR A NUMBER in each numbered space. (5 questions)
The United Nations [UN]
Main aim:
. keep international (1) _________
First meeting: 25 April, 1945
Now: (2) _________ countries
Has UN failed?
. many wars BUT not outside one region
. also a huge (3) __________ with 15 agencies doing good work
- WHO -preventing / dealing with diseases and (4) ________ disasters
- FAO-developing food crops, (5) __________ to fresh water
(36)___________________
(37)___________________
(38)___________________
(39)___________________
(40)___________________
PART 6 ERROR CORRECTION (4 questions)
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
41. If I won’t get a good mark in the chemistry test, I will be very disappointed.
A. won't
B. in
C. will be
D. disappointed
42. When I walked onto the stage, I was seeing the school hall full of students, parents and teachers.
A. When
B. onto
C. was seeing
D. full of
43. I still remember taking to Cuc Phuong National Park by my father when I was seven years old.
A. still remember
B. taking
C. when
D. seven years old
44. Olivia feels that she can’t keep on with her classmates in English, so she’s using a language app for further practice.
A. feels that
B. keep on with
C. so
D. for further practice
PART 7 WRITING (6 questions)
Use the given words or phrases to make superlatives
45. This / bad / haircut / I / ever / had.
→ ___________
Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meaning. Use the given word(s) if any.
46. I last paid her a visit two months ago. (FOR)
→ ___________
Use the words or phrases to make complete sentences.
47. He/ like / comedies / because / they / make / him / laugh a lot.
→ ___________
Use the words or phrases to make complete sentences.
48. I / just / receive / small gift / my close friend.
→ ___________
Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meaning. Use the given word(s) if any.
49. David is the best footballer in the team. (WELL)
→ No one else___________
Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meaning. Use the given word(s) if any.
50. Ann said to me, “I work for a small publishing company.”
→ Ann told___________
Trọn bộ Đáp án có trong File Tải về.
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