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3 Đề thi thử vào lớp 10 môn tiếng Anh năm 2022 có đáp án

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* Xem thêm: Bộ đề thi tuyển sinh lớp 10 môn Anh năm 2022

1. Đề thi tiếng Anh vào lớp 10 có đáp án - Đề số 1

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE (8.0 points)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.

1. A. garnishes

B. preserves

C. relaxes

D. notices

2. A. ancient

B. staple

C. occasion

D. afford

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

3. A. starter

B. open

C. punctual

D. comprise

4. A. accessible

B. simplicity

C. stimulating

D. efficiency

Mark the letter A, B, c, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

5. At first life was difficult for me because of I didn’t understand English.

A. At first

B. difficult

C. because of

D. understand

6. Copper comes from seven types of ores that also contain the other materials.

A. types

B. ores

C. also contain

D. the other

7. Silicon chips contain thousands of circuits in an area as smaller than a fingernail.

A. thousands

B. circuits

C. as smaller

D. a fingernail

Mark the letter A, B, c, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

8. He rarely forgets to do his homework, _______?

A. doesn’t he

B. is he

C. does he

D. isn’t he

9. You need to keep milk cold. Put it in the_______.

A. cupboard

B. basin

C. Fridge

D. freezer

10. My brother is eleven. He is still a/ an_______.

A. child

B. Teenager

C. adult

D. infant

11. Ona clear night, the moon_______so brightly that you can see your shadow.

A. shines

B. is

C. Seems

D. pours

12. Tom_______a lot of presents on his birthday.

A. gave

B. was giving

C. was given

D. was been given

13. You look terrific today! That color really_______you!

A. wears

B. matches

C. Fits

D. suits

14. The _______of the experiments proved to be very informative.

A. consequences

B. solutions

C. effects

D. results

15. Children should be_______to realize their full potential.

A. encouraging

B. courageous

C. encouraged

D. discouraged

16. The food was so hot _______.

A. that it burned my tongue

B. for it to burn my tongue

C. and then it burned my tongue

D. to have burned my tongue

Mark the letter A, B, c, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

17. - “Well done! That’s a very nice picture!”

- “_______”

A. Thanks. It’s nice of you to say so.

B. Wow. What’s a nice compliment!

C. Yes. I think so too.

D. Right. I’ve painted a nice picture.

18. - “Must I finish my homework now?”

- “_______”

A. Yes, you may.

B. Yes, you need.

C. No. you can’t.

D. No, you needn’t.

Mark the letter A, B, c, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

19. The graduation is sad, because the time we studied together has come to an end.

A. succeeded

B. begun

C. finished

D. changed

20. Under the major’s able leadership, the soldiers found safety.

A. guidance

B. intensity

C. flagship

D. ability

Mark the letter A, B, c, or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

21. If you follow these simple rules, not only will you save money, but also the environment will be cleaner.

A. earn

B. count

C. waste

D. replace

22. Animal communication is not a straight forward subject. It’s complicated because animals communicate differently with each other.

A. impossible to express

B. difficult to understand

C. easy to interpret

D. interesting to study

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, c, or D to indicate the correct word that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

The Atacama Desert is situated in South America. It is found near (23) _______thirtieth parallel south of the equator. (24) _______, the Sahara and the Rub’al-Khali deserts of northern Africa and nearby Saudi Arabia are 30° north of the equator. (25) _______the Kalahari Desert of Southern Africa is about 30° south of it. The Gobi Desert of central Asia (26) _______a little farther than 30° north, at about 45°, while the Great Sandy and Gibson deserts of Australia fall back into the pattern, lying 30° south of the equator. This pattern is no (27) _______. All the hot deserts are found about the same distance north or south of the equator.

23. A. a

B. the

C. this

D. that

24. A. Equally

B. Consequently

C. Similarly

D. Differently

25. A. where

B. whereas

C. though

D. when

26. A. lies

B. stays

C.locates

D.stands

27. A. chance

B. accident

C. opportunity

D. coincidence

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, c, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

The bee, like the ant. is a social insect. Bees live in groups in a hive, and every bee does certain work that helps the other members of the group. In a beehive there are three kinds of bees: the queen bee, the drones, and the workers. The worker bees go from flower to flower collecting nectar, or juice, which is composed mostly of sugar mixed with water. Bees draw this nectar into the honey sacks of their bodies, and enzymes in their bodies turn the nectar into honey. This newly made honey flows slowly from the underside of the bees and is stored in cells in the hive to be used as food during the winter months. Some people are in the honey business and keep hundreds of hives. Beekeepers remove honey from the hives and pack it in bottles or jars. Honey usually appears as a clear golden-colored liquid, but this depends on the kind of flower from which the bees have taken the nectar.

28. Bees are called social insects because they _______.

A. live in groups

B. live near people

C. need beekeepers

D. work hard

29. What do bees do with nectar?

A. Change it into sugar

B. Convert it into honey.

C. Give it to the queen bee.

D. Use it to build their hives.

30. From the passage, we know that honey is sold in_______.

A. beehives

B. golden-colored packs

C. honey sacks

D. bottles or jars

31. The underlined Word “which” in the last sentence refers to_______

A. honey

B. golden-colored liquid

C. kind of flower

D. nectar

32. The color of honey in its final stage depends on the _______.

A. type of flower from which the nectar W’as taken

B. amount of sugar the beekeepers give the bees

C. quantity of water available to the bees

D. season in which the nectar was collected

II. WRITING (2.0 points)

Finish the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, beginning with the given words.

33. My written English is better than my spoken English.

I am__________________.

34. You won’t get into university without passing your exam.

Unless_________________.

35. Because of his hard work, he made a success of his business.

He worked so_____________.

36. I found the film rather boring.

I was __________________.

Write new sentences as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentences, using the given words in brackets. Do not change the given words in any way.

37. There are quite a few things I would like to invent! (number)

___________________

38. Some chimpanzees use sign language to talk to people, (communicate)

___________________

39. In the city there are more places to go. They stay open later, (and ... too)

___________________

40. Uncle Tom used to smoke. He seems to be in good health, (although)

ĐÁP ÁN

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE (8.0 points)

CâuĐ/aCâuĐ/aCâuĐ/aCâuĐ/a
1B9C17A25B
2D10A18D26A
3D11A19C27D
4C12C20A28A
5C13D21C29B
6D14D22B30D
7C15C23B31C
8C16A24C32A

II. WRITING (2.0 points)

33. I am better at writing English than speaking it.

34. Unless you pass your exam, you won't get into university.

35. He worked so hard that he made a success of his business.

36. I was rather bored with the film.

37. There are a number of things that I would like to invent.

38. Some chimpanzees communicate with people through sign language/ using sign language./

Some chimpanzees use sign language to communicate with people.

39. In the city there are more places to go, and they stay open later too.

40. Although Uncle Tom used to smoke, he seems to be in good health./

Uncle Tom seems to be in good health although he used to smoke.

2. Đề thi tuyển sinh lớp 10 môn Anh có đáp án - Đề số 2

A - GRAMMAR - VOCABULARY - LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS.

I - Choose the best answer from the four options given (marked A, B, C, or D) to complete each sentence. (3,0 points)

1. My house _________in 1986.

A. is built B. was building C. was built

2. The doctor _________me not to stay up too late at night.

A. advised B. suggested C. insisted

3. Tomorrow we'll go to Noi Bai Airport to meet Maryam, _________comes from Malaysia.

A. whose B. whom C. who

4. His house looks very large and beautiful. It is _________house.

A. a seven-room B. a seven-rooms C. seven room

5. If you get up early, you _________late.

A. weren't B. wouldn't be C. won't be

6. "Maybe you can take a vacation next month." " __________"

A. Nothing special B. You're welcome. C. I don't think so. I'm teaching all summer

7. My father asked us _________too much time playing computer games.

A. not to spending B. did not spend C. not to spend

8. Hoai can not remember the name of the restaurant _________she ate her favorite roasted duck.

A. which B. whom C. where

9. "Haven't you put an advertisement in the paper yet?" "__________"

A. I'm not sure. Really? B. I will, the first thing in the afternoon. C. I can get a paper for you right now.

10. Nobody went to the party, _________?

A. does he B. did they C. didn't they

11. It is nearly 3 months _________he visited his parents.

A. while B. during C. since

12. _________population is another unpleasant result we have to solve.

A. Increased B. Increasing C. The increase

13. "___________" " No, nothing special."

A. Did you do anything special last weekend?

B. Did you watch the live show last weekend?

C. Did you go anywhere last weekend?

14. "Did you play tennis last weekend?" "____________"

A. It's my favourite sport. B. I worked. C. Would you like to come with me?

15. " How have you been recently? " "___________"

A. Pretty busy, I think. B. No, I'll not be busy. C. By bus, I think.

B - READING

I. Which notice (A - G) says this (21-25): (1,0 point)

21, These fish need to be cooled.

A. Ticket for oasis concert on sale here.

22, We don't sell many things.

B. No turn left.

23, You are too late to get a seat for this show.

C. Do not park in the front of the garage.

24, You get more for your money.

D. Go all way.

25,You can only go straight ahead.

E. Put in cold ice buckets.

F. Discounted on the eighty-five percent.

G. Eating soup and hot pies only here.

II - Read the following passage, then choose the correct answer to questions from 26 to 30. (1,0 point)

April Fools' Day

On April Fools' Day, people in many countries play tricks....(26) each other. Usually, the tricks involve making friends believe something ridiculous. On this day you could, for example,....(27)a friend there is a huge spider on their shoulder. If they believe you, you have succeeded.... (28)fooling them, and even if you only trick them for a second, you have the....(29) to shout "April Fool!".This day, 1st April, is also known as All Fools' Day. In some countries, such as Ireland or Cyprus, you can only try to fool someone before twelve noon. If you do play tricks after midday, you will become the fool instead. So it is advisable for you to do that in the morning. Whatever you do for, all you want is fun rather than do harm to others. And if you don't want to be foolish, be.....(30)!

26. A. with B. from C. on

27. A. tell B. say C. ask

28. A. instead B. instead of C. instead for

29. A. in B. right C. at

30. A. sensitiving B. sensitive C. sensitivision

III - Read the following passage, then choose the correct answer to questions 31 - 35. (1,0 point)

Sydney is Australia's most exciting city. The history of Australia begins here. In 1788 Captain Arthur Philips arrived in Sydney with 11 ships and 1624 passengers from Britain (including 770 prisoners). Today there are about 3.6 million people in Sydney. It is the biggest city in Australia, the busiest port in the South Pacific and one of the most beautiful cities in the world. In Sydney, the buildings are higher, the colors are brighter and the nightlife is more exciting. There are over 20 excellent beaches close to Sydney and its warm climate and cool winter have made it a favorite city for immigrants from overseas. There are two things that make Sydney famous: its beautiful harbor, the Sydney Harbor Bridge, which was built in 1932 and the Sydney Opera House, which was opened in 1973.

31. Where did Captain Arthur Philips arrive in 1788?

A. South Pacific B. Sydney Harbor C. Sydney

32. Which of the following should be the title of the reading passage?

A. Sydney's Opera House B. The history of Sydney C. An introduction of Sydney

33. Which of the following statements is NOT true about Sydney?

A. Sydney is not a favorite city for immigrants from overseas.

B. Sydney is one of the most beautiful cities in the world.

C. Sydney is the biggest port in the South Pacific.

34. How many beaches are there close to Sydney?

A. 11 beaches B. over 20 beaches C. nearly 20 beaches

35. When was the Sydney Harbor Bridge built?

A. 1788 B. 1932 C. 1973

C - WRITING

I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one. (1,5 points)

36. People say that they bought this shop last year.

- It is____________________________________________________.

37. He had scarcely put the phone down when the doorbell rang.

- Scarcely ______________________________________________.

38. Do you know the man who sat next to me at Nam's birthday party last night?

- You know________________________________________________.

39. It takes Minh 4 hours to play football every day.

- Minh spends________________________________________________.

40. We were late for school because of the heavy rain.

- Because it_________________________________________________.

II. Nowadays the environment are destroying. What should we do to protect the environment?

Write about 150 - 200 words to tell your answer. (1,5 points)

*Using:

-use tree leaves to wrap food instead of ly-non.

- don't throw trash and garbage onto the water.

- go to school or to work by bike

- should put garbage bins the public.

- don't cut down trees and should plant many green trees.

Đáp án

ĐÁP ÁN TỪNG CÂU MỖI CÂU 0,2/CÂU

1C

2A

3C

4A

5C

6C

7C

8C

9B

10B

11C

12A

13A

14B

15C

16C

17D

18A

19D

20B

21E

22G

23A

24F

25B

26C

27A

28A

29B

30B

31D

32C

33A

34B

35B

C - WRITING

I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one. (0,3/câu)

36. People say that they bought this shop last year.

- It is said that they bought this shop last year.

37. He had scarcely put the phone down when the doorbell rang.

- Scarcely had he put the phone down when the doorbell rang.

38. Do you know the man who sat next to me at Nam's birthday party last night?

- You know the man who sat next to me at Nam's birthday party last night, don't you?

39. It takes Minh 2 hours to do his homework every day.

- Minh spends 2 hours playing football every day.

40. We were late for school because of the heavy rain.

- Because it rained heavily, we were late for school.

II. Nowadays the environment are destroying. What should we do to protect the environment?

Write about 150 - 200 words to tell your answer. (1,5 pts)

- use tree leaves to wrap food instead of ly-non.

- don't throw trash and garbage onto the water.

- go to school or to work by bike

- should put garbage bins the public.

- don't cut down trees and should plant many green trees.

- Học sinh viết đúng nội dung đc 0,75 điểm

- Học sinh viết sai chính tả mỗi lỗi trừ 0,1 điểm

- Nếu viết hay đủ nội dung cho điểm tối đa

3. Đề thi tuyển sinh lớp 10 môn Anh có đáp án - Đề số 3

I. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

1. A. passed B. watched C. played D. washed

2. A. proud B. about C. around D. would

II. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

3.A. energy B. recycle C. logical D. grocery

4.A. danger B. include C. devote D. police

III. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question.

5. My house_________in 1986.

A. is built B. was building C. was built D. has been built

6. The doctor_________me not to stay up too late at night.

A. advised B. suggested C. insisted D. forced

7. Tomorrow we'll go to Noi Bai Airport to meet Maryam, _________comes from Malaysia.

A. who B. whom C. whose D. that

8. His house looks very large and beautiful. It is _________house.

A. a seven-room B. a seven-rooms C. seven room D. seven rooms

9. If you get up early, you_________late.

A. weren't B. wouldn't be C. aren't D. won't be

10. It's very hot today. I wish I_________on the beach now.

A. am B. was C. were D. had been

11. When he lived in the city, he_________to the theater twice a week.

A. uses to go B. has gone C. used to go D. was going

12. My father asked us_________too much time playing computer games.

A. not to spending B. did not spend C. not to spend D. to not spent

13. Hoai can not remember the name of the restaurant_________she ate her favorite roasted duck.

A. which B. whose C. whom D. where

14. If I were a flower, I_________a sunflower.

A. was B. were C. will be D. would be

Read and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D)

News media are the means or method by which people learn what is happening in the city, in the country and in the world. The news media can be classified into two general categories: the categories of print media and electronic media. Print media use the written material to communicate news to reader. Electronic media use air waves to send news into homes, offices and public places. Print media are usually divided into magazines and newspapers. Most newspapers print news daily. The electronic media are generally divided into radio and television. Radio news is the one that you listen to. In the United States, many radio stations broadcast five minutes of news every hour. Television news is the one that you not only listen to but also watch. In Canada and the United States, for example, many people watch an hour of news on TV at six o’clock in the evening. In the future new categories of news media will develop. Even today computers are beginning to influence the transmission and reception of news.

15.People learn what is happening in the world by __________.

A. news media B. newspapers C. television D. radios

16.How many groups can the media be classified?

A. five B. four C. three D. two

17.Television and radio are __________.

A. print media B. broadcast media C. visual media D. audio media.

18.In the United States, five-minute news __________.

A. is broadcasted widely by both radio and television

B. is broadcasted every hour.

C. is only read at six o’clock in the evening

D. is usually transmitted live

19.In the U.S.A and Canada, people can watch an hour of news __________.

A. at 6 P.M. B. at five A.M. C. at 5 P.M. D. at 6 A.M.

IV. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following question.

20. The picture was painting by Michael last year.

21. There’s the woman who she sold me the handbag.

22. Mr. Smith is going to buy a new Japanese car, doesn’t he?

IV. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

23.John: “I’ve passed my final exam.”- Tom: “____________”

A. Good lock. B. It’s nice of you to say so. C. That’s a good idea. D. Congratulations!

24.Hung: “Would you like to have dinner with me?”- Lam: “__________.”

A. Yes, I’d love to B. I’m very happy C. Yes, it is D. Yes, so do I

VI. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

25. A sustainable forest is a forest where trees that are cut are replanted and the wildlife is protected.

A. pre-tested B. preserved C. reserved D. protested

26. When you take part in an eco tour, you learn more about the cultural traditions of the local people and the natural habitat of some rare animals.

A. participate B. conduct C. enjoy D. depart

VII. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

27. “Green” tourists or “eco-tourists” are upset by the effects of mass tourism.

A. tense

B. troubled

C. nervous

D. relaxed

28. How many people can visit the Galapagos Islands off the coast of Ecuador without affecting the ecological balance?

A. keeping intact

B. influencing

C. troubling

D. causing disturbance

VIII. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Harvest Festival is (29 __________ October. It is a very ancient (30) __________ but it is also part of the Christian tradition. It (31) __________ new crops and food. Children often bring fruit, vegetables and cereals into school. Schools usually give the food to hospitals or to old people. (32) __________ the past, people sometimes (33) __________ traditional dolls out of corn.

29. A. in B. at C. on D. from

30. A. thing B. festival C. vacation D. holiday

31. A. gives B. supplies C. celebrates D. holds

32. A. In B. At C. On D. Since

33. A. make B. are making C. making D. made

Choose the correct sentence among A, B, C or D which has the same meaning as the given

34.. "John left here an hour ago," said Jane.

A. Jane told me that John had left there an hour before.

B. Jane said John left here an hour before.

C. Jane told John to have left there an hour before.

D. Jane told me that John to leave there an hour before.

35. "Why didn 't you follow my advice?" he said.

A. He asked me to follow his advice.

B. He asked me not to follow his advice.

C. He asked me why I did follow his advice.

D. He asked me why 1 hadn't followed his advice.

36. "If I were you, I would take the job," said my room-mate.

A. My room-mate was thinking about taking the job.

B. My room-mate advised me to take the job.

C. My room-mate introduced the idea of taking the job to me.

D. My room-mate insisted on taking the job for me.

37. You talk more than you work. The teacher wishes that __________.

A. you work more than you talk B. you worked more than you talked

C. you worked more than you talk D. you had worked more than you had talked

38 I / hope / have / good time / together / see you soon

a. I hope us will have a good time together. See you soon.

b. I hope us to have a good time together, and seeing you soon.

c. I hope we will have a good time with together and I will see you soon.

d. I hope we will have a good time together. See you soon.

39.Why don’t you have your hair cut?

A. She suggests having her hair cut.

B. She suggests she should have her hair cut.

C. She suggests I should have her hair cut.

D. She suggests I should have my hair cut.

40. While Nam is good at English, he isn’t very good at Maths.

A. Nam is good at English because he isn’t very good at Maths.

B. Nam is good at English, and he isn’t very good at Maths.

C. Nam is good at English, but he isn’t very good at Maths.

D. Nam is good at English, so he isn’t very good at Maths.

ĐÁP ÁN

I. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

1 - C; 2 - D;

II. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

3 - B; 4 - A;

III. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question.

5 - C; 6 - A; 7 - A; 8 - A; 9 - D;

10 - C; 11 - C; 12 - C; 13 - A; 14 - D;

Read and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D)

15 - A; 16 - D; 17 - B; 18 - B; 19 - A;

IV. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following question.

20 - B; 21 - C; 22 - D;

IV. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

23 - D; 24 - A;

VI. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

25 - B; 26 - A;

VII. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

27 - D; 28 - A;

VIII. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

29 - A; 30 - B; 31 - C; 32 - A; 33 - D;

Choose the correct sentence among A, B, C or D which has the same meaning as the given

34 - A; 35 - A; 36 - B; 37 - B; 38 - d; 39 - D; 40 - C;

Trên đây là Bộ 3 Đề thi vào 10 môn tiếng Anh 2022 có đáp án. Mời bạn đọc tham khảo thêm nhiều tài liệu ôn thi vào lớp 10 năm 2022 các môn học khác như: ôn thi vào lớp 10 môn Toán, ôn thi vào lớp 10 môn Văn, ... được cập nhật liên tục trên VnDoc.com.

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